An herb thought to be useful in treating memory problems is:
A. Ginseng
B. St John's Wort
C. Ginkgo Biloba
D. Echinacea
A side effect common to most of the anticonvulsants is:
A. Hiccoughs
B. Sedation
C. Hypertension
D. Peripheral neuropathies (numbness and tingling in fingers and/or toes)
Fluoxetine (PROZAC) relieves depression by:
A. increasing the amount of serotonin in the synaptic cleft
B. blocking release of norepinephrine from the pre-synaptic nerve
C. increasing the metabolism of MAO (mono-amine oxidase)
D. depressing the metabolism of MAO
Carbamazepine is indicated for:
A. Bipolar disease
B. Febrile seizures in children
C. Depression
D. Partial seizures
Ethosuximide is indicated for:
A. Partial seizures
B. Tonic-clonic seizures
C. Absence seizures
D. Status epilepticus
Severe alcohol withdrawal:
A. May not be manifested until several days after alcohol ingestion has stopped.
B. Includes signs and symptoms of hallucinations, agitation, sweating, rapid heart rate.
C. Is treated aggressively with benzodiazepines or the patient could die.
D. All of the above.
Mr. H is brought to the emergency room with chest pain, a rapid pounding heart beat and very high blood pressure. Since he is only 28, in excellent physical shape and has no history of heart disease, it surprises you when his tests show he had a heart attack. Which of the following drugs of abuse most likely could have contributed to the decreased oxygen delivery to his heart?
A. Alcohol
B. Cocaine
C. A hallucinogen such as LSD
D. Heroin
A patient seeks medical attention for depression and receives a prescription for paroxetine 20 mg/day. 3 weeks later the patient states the symptoms have not improved. The best course of action is to:
A. Change to phenelzine
B. Suggest adding St. John's Wort herbal product
C. Change to amitriptyline
D. Increase the dose of paroxetine
Which of the following are/is a cholinesterase inhibitor(s), appropriate for the treatment of symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?
A. carbamazepine, ethosuximide, lamotrigine
B. physostigmine, pyridostigmine
C. memantine
D. donepezil, galatamine, rivastigimine
When evaluating care provided by hospitals, the Joint Commission may review whether chemical restraints are used appropriately, in the treatment of patients, or inappropriately, to "police" irritating behavior. Which of the following is an appropriate use of chemical restraints?
A. A patient is agitated and restless, writhing around in bed which is causing the dressings to be torn off a wound. The nurse gives a dose of midazolam.
B. The nurse administers risperidone to an elderly confused patient who tried to climb over the bedrail when the family has just agreed to leave one member at the bedside around the clock.
C. The doctor orders vicodin for a delirious patient who has pulled out 2 IV lines in the last hour.
D. A patient with a drug overdose is yelling obcenities in the emergency room and other patients are complaining. The nurse gives a dose of haloperidol.
The mechanism of action of the antiseizure drug valproic acid is most likely:
A. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
B. stimulation of sodium channels
C. blocking serotonin reuptake
D. increase in GABA activity
Lamotrigine is indicated for:
A. Absence seizures
B. Insomnia
C. Tonic-clonic seizures
D. Status epilepticus
An alcoholic who was driving drunk is admitted to the hospital after an auto accident. Which statement is FALSE?
A. Folic acid, thiamine, and multivitamins will probably be ordered.
B. Delirium tremors (DTs) may develop and result in death if the patient is not treated with a drug such as lorazepam (ATIVAN).
C. Alcohol depletes liver fat so the patient will need a diet high in fat.
D. Prolonged night blindness from alcohol may have contributed to the accident.
A patient with a 3 week history of fatigue, sadness, irritability, boredom and difficulty paying attention in school seeks medical attention for insomnia. Sertraline 50 mg/day is furnished but 2 days later the patient states the symptoms have not improved. The best course of action is to:
A. Switch to paroxetine
B. Increase the dose of sertraline
C. Add zolpidem for the next 6 weeks
D. Explain that more time is needed to see effect
A patient receiving donepezil and memantine comes to the hospital with nausea and vomiting. You note he swallows frequently and drools clear saliva. His skin is wet with sweat. BP is low at 80/50 and heart rate is low at 50. You should treat shock and......
A. give atropine.
B. increase the donepezil dose.
C. give physostigimine.
D. discontinue the memantine.
Thanks Jose Rodriguez we really appreciate it!!!
The antipsychotic drug risperodone (RISPERDAL) works by:
A. Blocking H1 receptors in the brain
B. Antagonizing dopamine and serotonin receptors
C. Agonizing alpha-2 receptors
D. Stimulating release of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain
Which of the following is an adverse effect of phenytoin (DILANTIN)?
A. addiction.
B. euphoria.
C. gum disease.
D. hair loss.
Zolpidem is indicated for:
A. Tonic-clonic seizures
B. Insomnia
C. Absence seizures
D. Bipolar disease
Thanks Lily (added 12/8)
An herb thought to be useful in treating anxiety and sleeping problems is:
A. Ginseng
B. Senna
C. Kava
D. Saw Palmetto
Which of the following should patients and/or their caregivers be told when they start taking antidepressant drugs?
A. Drugs often deplete potassium. Keep diet high in potassium rich food.
B. The drugs may stimulate sexual appetite.
C. Dry mouth should be managed with ice chips or sugarless gum.
D. It is safe to use herbal supplements such as St. John's wort to enhance the antidepressant effect of the drugs.
The mechanism of action of phenytoin (DILANTIN)is
A. reducing sodium transport.
B. calcium channel blockade.
C. beta receptor blockade.
D. GABA inhibition.
Ms. J is brought to the emergency room in a semi-comatose state. She has a low blood pressure and is breathing slowly. Her pupils are pinpoint. These signs and symptoms are most consistent with a drug overdose on which of the following?
A. Amphetamines
B. Cocaine
C. A hallucinogen such as LSD
D. An opiate such as heroin
Friday, November 21, 2008
Pre 12 psych/seizure/abuse
If a depressed patient starts taking an antidepressant drug, effectiveness should be seen:
A. within about 30 minutes
B. after 2-4 hours, depending on the drug
C. within 24-48 hours
D. after a few weeks
Anticholinergic side effects from the antipsychotics occur because:
A. There are dopaminergic receptors in the autonomic nervous system
B. The drugs stimulate atropine release from the adrenals
C. MAO inhibitors potentiate release of norepinephrine
D. Tyramine metabolism is blocked
The drug zolpidem is useful in treating:
A. bipolar disease
B. anxiety
C. depression
D. insomnia
Diazepam (VALIUM) is used to treat:
A. Anxiety
B. Psychotic behavior
C. Depression
D. Postoperative pain
Under which of the following conditions should you hold (not administer) risperidone?
A. The patient admits to hallucinations.
B. The respiratory rate is high at 24.
C. The ordered dose is 100 mg orally.
D. The patient has a sulfa allergy.
If an anxious patient starts taking a benzodiazepine orally, effectiveness should be seen:
A. within about 10 minutes
B. within about 1 hour
C. within 2-3 weeks
D. within 6-8 weeks
Which of the following should patients and/or their caregivers be told when they start taking antidepressant drugs?
A. Drugs often deplete potassium. Keep diet high in potassium rich food.
B. The drugs may stimulate sexual appetite.
C. Dry mouth should be managed with ice chips or sugarless gum.
D. It is safe to use herbal supplements such as St. John's wort to enhance the antidepressant effect of the drugs.
Thanks Jose Rodriguez, we appreciate it!!!
Haloperidol (HALDOL) is used to treat:
A.Anxiety
B.Psychotic behavior
C.Postoperative pain
D.Depression
Valproate sodium (DEPAKENE) stimulates GABA receptors and is useful for treating:
A. Depression
B. Psychosis
C. Seizures
D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Thanks Lily (added 12/8)
Under what conditions would you hold (not administer) Dilantin?
A.The lab tells you the phenytoin blood level is 25 mcg/ml. (Normal 0; Therapeutic 10-20 mcg/ml)
B.The patient has a history of seizures after trauma to the head.
C.The blood pressure is high at 150/88.
D.The patient has a mild renal impairment.
A. within about 30 minutes
B. after 2-4 hours, depending on the drug
C. within 24-48 hours
D. after a few weeks
Anticholinergic side effects from the antipsychotics occur because:
A. There are dopaminergic receptors in the autonomic nervous system
B. The drugs stimulate atropine release from the adrenals
C. MAO inhibitors potentiate release of norepinephrine
D. Tyramine metabolism is blocked
The drug zolpidem is useful in treating:
A. bipolar disease
B. anxiety
C. depression
D. insomnia
Diazepam (VALIUM) is used to treat:
A. Anxiety
B. Psychotic behavior
C. Depression
D. Postoperative pain
Under which of the following conditions should you hold (not administer) risperidone?
A. The patient admits to hallucinations.
B. The respiratory rate is high at 24.
C. The ordered dose is 100 mg orally.
D. The patient has a sulfa allergy.
If an anxious patient starts taking a benzodiazepine orally, effectiveness should be seen:
A. within about 10 minutes
B. within about 1 hour
C. within 2-3 weeks
D. within 6-8 weeks
Which of the following should patients and/or their caregivers be told when they start taking antidepressant drugs?
A. Drugs often deplete potassium. Keep diet high in potassium rich food.
B. The drugs may stimulate sexual appetite.
C. Dry mouth should be managed with ice chips or sugarless gum.
D. It is safe to use herbal supplements such as St. John's wort to enhance the antidepressant effect of the drugs.
Thanks Jose Rodriguez, we appreciate it!!!
Haloperidol (HALDOL) is used to treat:
A.Anxiety
B.Psychotic behavior
C.Postoperative pain
D.Depression
Valproate sodium (DEPAKENE) stimulates GABA receptors and is useful for treating:
A. Depression
B. Psychosis
C. Seizures
D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Thanks Lily (added 12/8)
Under what conditions would you hold (not administer) Dilantin?
A.The lab tells you the phenytoin blood level is 25 mcg/ml. (Normal 0; Therapeutic 10-20 mcg/ml)
B.The patient has a history of seizures after trauma to the head.
C.The blood pressure is high at 150/88.
D.The patient has a mild renal impairment.
Sunday, November 16, 2008
Post 11 pain/ anesth
What patient teaching should the nurse do regarding the use of the PCA (patient controlled analgesia) pump?
A. Your family or other visitors may push the button for you if you are asleep.
B. You should not worry about any side effects as this medication is given intraveneously.
C. Push the administration button prior to any activity likely to cause pain, such as walking or coughing.
D. Call the nurse when you need medication. Only the nurse should push the button.
A 57 year old with severe pain from terminal cancer needs pain medicine. Which would be most appropriate?
A. Acetaminophen, sustained release morphine in regular doses and short acting oral morphine as needed for pain uncontrolled with above meds
B. Fentanyl patch, and an oral agonist-antagonist such as pentazocine (Talwin)
C. Meperidine (regular doses throughout day), acetaminophen or aspirin as needed
D. Tricyclic antidepressant and an anticonvulsant
Meperidine (DEMEROL) use is NOT recommended for pain when:
A. Long term use is required, due to buildup of neurotoxic metabolites.
B. The patient has gall bladder disease, due to spasm of the Sphincter of Oddi.
C. The patient has a history of drug abuse, since these patients are not thought to have "true" pain.
D. The pain is nociceptive in nature.
The American Pain Society published Practice Guidelines in 2002 for managing arthritis. For mild pain, the drug of choice is:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Celebrex
D. Ibuprofen
You are visiting a patient at home for therapy after orthopedic surgery. The patient is taking VICODAN but says even at the maximum prescribed dose, the pain is not bearable, and he refuses physical therapy. Your best action is to:
A. Instruct the patient to increase the dose of VICODAN.
B. Instruct the patient to take 2 tabs of TYLENOL in between each VICODAN
dose.
C. Contact the MD/NP about adding ibuprofen.
D. Delay therapy for a few weeks until the patient has time to
heal.
An adult patient with life threatening airway spasms from tetanus receives vecuronium (NORCURON) for several weeks. What drug(s) should the patient receive simultaneously?
A. Calcium
B. Diazepam (VALIUM)
C. Succinylcholine (ANECTINE)
D. Neostigmine (PROSTIGMIN) and atropine
Before sticking the large needle through the skin, the surgeon infiltrated the skin with lidocaine in order to:
A. Prevent reflex muscle spasm
B. Reduce pain
C. Decrease blood flow and thus risk of bleeding
D. Suppress autonomic nervous system reflexes
A patient with multiple sclerosis has muscle spasms which are making it difficult for her to work with her physical therapist. A drug which could be used to help this problem is:
A. Baclofen (LIORESOL)
B. Acetaminophen (TYLENOL)
C. Vecuronium (NORCURON)
D. All of the above
A common intravenous agent used in anesthesia for induction and/or maintenance is:
A. Vecuronium (NORCURON)
B. Lidocaine (XYLOCAINE)
C. Atropine
D. Propofol (DIPRIVAN)
A post-operative patient is taking 2 hydrocodone with acetaminophen tablets every 6 hours. How would you best measure efficacy of this medication?
A. Obtain labs to evaluate kidney function.
B. Ask the patient about pain level.
C. Get drug blood levels.
D. Check blood pressure and pulse.
A 3 year old had gastric surgery this morning and needs pain medicine. Which would be most appropriate?
A. Meperidine (DEMEROL) on a patient controlled analgesia (PCA)
pump
B. A fentanyl patch applied 12 hours after the end of surgery
C. Oral hydrocodone with acetaminophen (VICODAN) as needed
D. Small doses of intravenous morphine as needed
Cyclobenzaprine (FLEXERIL) is a muscle relaxant with significant anticholinergic properties. What would you predict for side effects?
A. Diarrhea, abdominal cramps
B. Hypertension, tachycardia
C. Bleeding disorders
D. Dizziness, dry mouth, blurred vision
The inhalation agent isoflurane (FURANE) works by:
A. Preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular
junction
B. Increasing action of the neuroinhibitory transmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid
(GABA)
C. Inhibiting reuptake of serotonin by pre-synaptic cells in the
brain
D. Depressing impulse transmission in the brain
A patient with cancer has been taking sustained release morphine around-the-clock for several months. What is the best measure of adverse reactions that you would anticipate at this time?
A. Check skin for rash
B. Check blood pressure
C. Check date of last BM
D. Check respiratory rate
Gabapentin (NEUROTIN) has been ordered for your diabetic patient because:
A. Anxiety is common in diabetics
B. Neuropathic pain is common in diabetics
C. It suppresses vagal stimulation during anesthetic induction
D. It helps maintain blood sugar during the stress of surgery
The anesthetist added bupivacaine to the morphine epidural infusion in order to:
A. Work synergistically with morphine to reduce pain
B. Maintain blood pressure
C. Decrease urinary retention
D. Improve muscle strength in the legs
A diabetic patient has severe neuropathic pain which has been unresponsive to opioids. What would be most appropriate to try next?
A. Acetaminophen
B. The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory naproxen (ALEVE)
C. Gabapentin (NEURONTIN)
D. Methadone
Thanks Lily Sok for all your input, we appreciate it!!!
A. Your family or other visitors may push the button for you if you are asleep.
B. You should not worry about any side effects as this medication is given intraveneously.
C. Push the administration button prior to any activity likely to cause pain, such as walking or coughing.
D. Call the nurse when you need medication. Only the nurse should push the button.
A 57 year old with severe pain from terminal cancer needs pain medicine. Which would be most appropriate?
A. Acetaminophen, sustained release morphine in regular doses and short acting oral morphine as needed for pain uncontrolled with above meds
B. Fentanyl patch, and an oral agonist-antagonist such as pentazocine (Talwin)
C. Meperidine (regular doses throughout day), acetaminophen or aspirin as needed
D. Tricyclic antidepressant and an anticonvulsant
Meperidine (DEMEROL) use is NOT recommended for pain when:
A. Long term use is required, due to buildup of neurotoxic metabolites.
B. The patient has gall bladder disease, due to spasm of the Sphincter of Oddi.
C. The patient has a history of drug abuse, since these patients are not thought to have "true" pain.
D. The pain is nociceptive in nature.
The American Pain Society published Practice Guidelines in 2002 for managing arthritis. For mild pain, the drug of choice is:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Celebrex
D. Ibuprofen
You are visiting a patient at home for therapy after orthopedic surgery. The patient is taking VICODAN but says even at the maximum prescribed dose, the pain is not bearable, and he refuses physical therapy. Your best action is to:
A. Instruct the patient to increase the dose of VICODAN.
B. Instruct the patient to take 2 tabs of TYLENOL in between each VICODAN
dose.
C. Contact the MD/NP about adding ibuprofen.
D. Delay therapy for a few weeks until the patient has time to
heal.
An adult patient with life threatening airway spasms from tetanus receives vecuronium (NORCURON) for several weeks. What drug(s) should the patient receive simultaneously?
A. Calcium
B. Diazepam (VALIUM)
C. Succinylcholine (ANECTINE)
D. Neostigmine (PROSTIGMIN) and atropine
Before sticking the large needle through the skin, the surgeon infiltrated the skin with lidocaine in order to:
A. Prevent reflex muscle spasm
B. Reduce pain
C. Decrease blood flow and thus risk of bleeding
D. Suppress autonomic nervous system reflexes
A patient with multiple sclerosis has muscle spasms which are making it difficult for her to work with her physical therapist. A drug which could be used to help this problem is:
A. Baclofen (LIORESOL)
B. Acetaminophen (TYLENOL)
C. Vecuronium (NORCURON)
D. All of the above
A common intravenous agent used in anesthesia for induction and/or maintenance is:
A. Vecuronium (NORCURON)
B. Lidocaine (XYLOCAINE)
C. Atropine
D. Propofol (DIPRIVAN)
A post-operative patient is taking 2 hydrocodone with acetaminophen tablets every 6 hours. How would you best measure efficacy of this medication?
A. Obtain labs to evaluate kidney function.
B. Ask the patient about pain level.
C. Get drug blood levels.
D. Check blood pressure and pulse.
A 3 year old had gastric surgery this morning and needs pain medicine. Which would be most appropriate?
A. Meperidine (DEMEROL) on a patient controlled analgesia (PCA)
pump
B. A fentanyl patch applied 12 hours after the end of surgery
C. Oral hydrocodone with acetaminophen (VICODAN) as needed
D. Small doses of intravenous morphine as needed
Cyclobenzaprine (FLEXERIL) is a muscle relaxant with significant anticholinergic properties. What would you predict for side effects?
A. Diarrhea, abdominal cramps
B. Hypertension, tachycardia
C. Bleeding disorders
D. Dizziness, dry mouth, blurred vision
The inhalation agent isoflurane (FURANE) works by:
A. Preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular
junction
B. Increasing action of the neuroinhibitory transmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid
(GABA)
C. Inhibiting reuptake of serotonin by pre-synaptic cells in the
brain
D. Depressing impulse transmission in the brain
A patient with cancer has been taking sustained release morphine around-the-clock for several months. What is the best measure of adverse reactions that you would anticipate at this time?
A. Check skin for rash
B. Check blood pressure
C. Check date of last BM
D. Check respiratory rate
Gabapentin (NEUROTIN) has been ordered for your diabetic patient because:
A. Anxiety is common in diabetics
B. Neuropathic pain is common in diabetics
C. It suppresses vagal stimulation during anesthetic induction
D. It helps maintain blood sugar during the stress of surgery
The anesthetist added bupivacaine to the morphine epidural infusion in order to:
A. Work synergistically with morphine to reduce pain
B. Maintain blood pressure
C. Decrease urinary retention
D. Improve muscle strength in the legs
A diabetic patient has severe neuropathic pain which has been unresponsive to opioids. What would be most appropriate to try next?
A. Acetaminophen
B. The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory naproxen (ALEVE)
C. Gabapentin (NEURONTIN)
D. Methadone
Thanks Lily Sok for all your input, we appreciate it!!!
Pre 11 pain/ anesth
Overdose on opioids is associated with which of the following?
A. Hypertension
B. Slow respiratory rate
C. Diarrhea
D. Frequent urination
The World Health Organization recommends which strategy for managing pain in a patient with cancer?
A. Meperidine (DEMEROL) is the preferred drug for long term use.
Toxic metabolites with long term use.
B. Start with COX inhibitor such as acetaminophen. Add a weak opioid advancing
to stronger opioids as needed.
C. Start with a high-dose fentanyl patch, evaluating every hour until the pain
is controlled. Reduce dose of next patch applied if
possible.
D. Alternate a narcotic with doses of naltrexone to prevent
addicition.
Many people interchange aspirin and acetaminophen (TYLENOL) for treating problems such as headaches. Under which of the the following circumstances is aspirin favored over acetaminophen?
A. The patient has a history of gastrointestinal bleeding.
B. The patient has a fever.
C. The patient is taking low doses to prevent a stroke.
D. The patient is elderly.
An example of a general anesthetic is:
A. Breathing in isoflurane
B. Injection of lidocaine into the skin
C. Injecting mepivacaine near a nerve
D. Giving a preoperative intravenous injection of atropine
Select the correct statement regarding pain management.
A. Mu and kappa receptors are limited in location to the sensory spinal cord
tracts.
B. Extreme care must be taken to avoid overdosing on narcotics as there is no
antidote.
C. At least 50 million people are diabled as a result of pain.
D. Neuropathic pain responds better to opioids than nociceptive pain
does.
A side effect of morphine, for which tolerance DOES NOT develop, is:
A. Hypertension
B. Sedation
C. Abdominal pain
D. Constipation
What information must be taught to the care giver of a patient who will be receiving tablets of sustained release opioid?
A. The potential for respiratory depression will increase the longer the
patient takes the medication.
B. Tolerence to the analgesic effect may develop but can be managed by a
decrease in dosage.
C. Do not crush the tablets as overdose could result.
D. Extra doses can be used to treat itching associated with
chemotherapy
An example of a local anesthetic is:
A. Injection of lidocaine into the skin
B. Breathing in isoflurane
C. A preoperative intravenous injection of atropine
D. Continuous intravenous infusion of propofol
A. Hypertension
B. Slow respiratory rate
C. Diarrhea
D. Frequent urination
The World Health Organization recommends which strategy for managing pain in a patient with cancer?
A. Meperidine (DEMEROL) is the preferred drug for long term use.
Toxic metabolites with long term use.
B. Start with COX inhibitor such as acetaminophen. Add a weak opioid advancing
to stronger opioids as needed.
C. Start with a high-dose fentanyl patch, evaluating every hour until the pain
is controlled. Reduce dose of next patch applied if
possible.
D. Alternate a narcotic with doses of naltrexone to prevent
addicition.
Many people interchange aspirin and acetaminophen (TYLENOL) for treating problems such as headaches. Under which of the the following circumstances is aspirin favored over acetaminophen?
A. The patient has a history of gastrointestinal bleeding.
B. The patient has a fever.
C. The patient is taking low doses to prevent a stroke.
D. The patient is elderly.
An example of a general anesthetic is:
A. Breathing in isoflurane
B. Injection of lidocaine into the skin
C. Injecting mepivacaine near a nerve
D. Giving a preoperative intravenous injection of atropine
Select the correct statement regarding pain management.
A. Mu and kappa receptors are limited in location to the sensory spinal cord
tracts.
B. Extreme care must be taken to avoid overdosing on narcotics as there is no
antidote.
C. At least 50 million people are diabled as a result of pain.
D. Neuropathic pain responds better to opioids than nociceptive pain
does.
A side effect of morphine, for which tolerance DOES NOT develop, is:
A. Hypertension
B. Sedation
C. Abdominal pain
D. Constipation
What information must be taught to the care giver of a patient who will be receiving tablets of sustained release opioid?
A. The potential for respiratory depression will increase the longer the
patient takes the medication.
B. Tolerence to the analgesic effect may develop but can be managed by a
decrease in dosage.
C. Do not crush the tablets as overdose could result.
D. Extra doses can be used to treat itching associated with
chemotherapy
An example of a local anesthetic is:
A. Injection of lidocaine into the skin
B. Breathing in isoflurane
C. A preoperative intravenous injection of atropine
D. Continuous intravenous infusion of propofol
Post 10 hormones/osteo
M.K. is a 74 year old woman who has been taking thyroid hormones for 10 years. Which of the following effects of thyroid hormones would be the most dangerous for her?
A. cardiac stimulation
B. constipation
C. insomnia
D. muscle relaxation
F.H. is a 42 year old type 1 diabetic who has been receiving insulin for a long time. He needs a very high dose of insulin to maintain his blood glucose within the target range. Which of the following drugs might be added to his medications to help control his blood glucose?
A. glucagon.
B. bromocriptine.
C. growth hormone.
D. metformin (GLUCOPHAGE).
Which of the following are adverse effects of metformin (GLUCOPHAGE)?
A. hypotension
B. headache
C. blurred vision
D. hyperglycemia
Which of the following would you predict as an effect of insulin administration?
A. Increased blood glucose
B. Decreased white blood cell count
C. Increased serum sodium
D. Decreased serum potassium
After subcutaneous administration of NPH insulin, the peak effect is seen:
A. within 5-10 minutes
B. in 6-12 hours
C. in 18-24 hours
D. after 2 weeks of therapy
Which of the following statements about Repaglinide (PRANDIN)is true?
A. It mimics the normal first phase insulin reaction.
B. It sensitizes cells to the action of insulin.
C. It decreases carbohydrate absorption from the gut.
D. It should be taken 30 minutes after eating.
For many years, women have been prescribed estrogen with or without progesterone at menopause to reduce hotflashes and protect the bones and blood vessels. In 2002 the Women's Health Initiative published findings (JAMA 2002 Jul 17;288(3):366-8) substantiated by other reviews (JAMA 2002 Aug 21;288(7):872-81) that showed the effect of postmenopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to include:
A. Large reduction in risk of breast cancer.
B. NO reduction in risk of heart attack and stroke.
C. Small reduction in risk of gall bladder disease.
D. Large increase in the risk of osteoporotic bone fractures.
A patient is to receive 12 units of regular insulin AND sliding scale insulin as follows: for BS (blood sugar) less than 80: give sugar, for BS 81-140: give no insulin, for BS 141-200 give 2 units regular insulin, for BS 201-250 give 4 units regular insulin, for BS 251-300 give 6 units regular insulin, for BS 301-350 give 8 units regular insulin. For BS over 350 give 10 units regular insulin. This morning the blood sugar was 40. What should you do?
Student Response Correct Answer
A. Give 12 units Humalog insulin with sugar.
B. Give 12 units Humulin-R with sugar.
C. Give 12 units Humulin-N with sugar.
D. Give sugar.
LC is a 33 year old who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past 8 years. To assess her risk of having adverse effects from this medication, the most important question you should ask is:
A. "Are you allergic to eggs?"
B. "Do you smoke?"
C. "Has anyone in your family died of colon cancer?"
D. "Have any family members been diagnosed with osteoporosis?"
When teaching an elderly client how to take calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis, your best statement would be:
A. Take 240 mg sustained release Calan each morning.
B. Take 1 500 mg calcium carbonate in the morning on an empty
stomach.
C. Take 1 100 mg tablet of calcium citrate with each meal.
D. Take 2 500 mg tablets of calcium carbonate every evening with your
meal.
Which of the following drugs would INCREASE the cardiovascular adverse effects of thyroid hormones?
A. acetominophen
B. beta blockers
C. parasympathomimetic drugs
D. sympathomimetic drugs
H.W. is a 56 year old male who has type 2 diabetes. He is taking glipizide (GLUCOTROL) and acarbose (PRECOSE). He shows evidence of hypoglycemia. How should this be treated?
A. administer insulin
B. give him sugar
C. give him a high protein supplement
D. take his blood pressure and watch carefully
Match the drug to its MAJOR mechanism of aciton.
glipizide (GLUCOTROL) Replaces insulin
acarbose (PRECOSE) Increases insulin release
repaglinide (PRANDIN) Delays absorption of carbohydrate
NPH insulin
LC is a 33 year old who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past 8 years. To assess her risk of having adverse effects from this medication, the most important question you should ask is:
A. "Do you smoke?"
B. "Has anyone in your family died of colon cancer?"
C. "Are you allergic to eggs?"
D. "Have any family members been diagnosed with osteoporosis?"
Which of the following is the least expensive prevention for osteoporosis?
A. Flomax
B. Evista
C. Forteo
D. Calcium supplements with vitamin D
After subcutaneous administration of regular insulin, the peak effect is seen:
A. within 5-10 minutes
B. in 2-4 hours
C. in 8-12 hours
D. after 2 weeks of therapy
Which of the following are adverse effects of glipizide (GLUCOTROL)?
A. hypertension
B. headache
C. chest pain
D. muscle pain
Courtesy of Vanessa Kelly, Thanks!!!
LC is a 33 year old who has been taking oral contraceptives. She reports a recent weight gain and says her right foot is so swollen she can barely get her shoe on. Her left foot is normal. What is the significance of these complaints?
A. She is probably pregnant, and should pick up an over-the-counter kit to check before she takes any more BCPs.
B. These symptoms may eventually require a trip to the doctor, but they are not related to the BCPs.
C. She is showing signs of menopause and could probably safely stop taking the BCPs without getting pregnant.
D. She has probably developed a blood clot in her right leg (thrombophlebitis), and should go to the hospital to have it checked.
H.B. is a 48 year old male who is being treated for type 2 diabetes with oral agents. He reports his usual fasting blood glucose is 168, bedtime glucose is 180, and A1c is 10.2. Which of the following statements is true about H.B.?
A. He should stay on the same medications.
B. He needs additional medicine.
C. He needs lower doses of medicine.
D. His diabetes has resolved.
Your diabetic patient is to receive 8 units of regular insulin AND sliding scale insulin as follows: for BS (blood sugar) less than 80: give sugar, for BS 81-140: give no insulin, for BS 141-200 give 2 units regular insulin, for BS 201-250 give 4 units regular insulin, for BS 251-300 give 6 units regular insulin, for BS 301-350 give 8 units regular insulin. For BS over 350 give 10 units regular insulin. This morning the blood sugar was 145. What should you do?
A. Give 8 units Humalog and 2 units Humulin-R.
B. Give 10 units Humulin-R.
C. Give 8 units Humalog.
D. Give 12 units Humulin-N.
A. cardiac stimulation
B. constipation
C. insomnia
D. muscle relaxation
F.H. is a 42 year old type 1 diabetic who has been receiving insulin for a long time. He needs a very high dose of insulin to maintain his blood glucose within the target range. Which of the following drugs might be added to his medications to help control his blood glucose?
A. glucagon.
B. bromocriptine.
C. growth hormone.
D. metformin (GLUCOPHAGE).
Which of the following are adverse effects of metformin (GLUCOPHAGE)?
A. hypotension
B. headache
C. blurred vision
D. hyperglycemia
Which of the following would you predict as an effect of insulin administration?
A. Increased blood glucose
B. Decreased white blood cell count
C. Increased serum sodium
D. Decreased serum potassium
After subcutaneous administration of NPH insulin, the peak effect is seen:
A. within 5-10 minutes
B. in 6-12 hours
C. in 18-24 hours
D. after 2 weeks of therapy
Which of the following statements about Repaglinide (PRANDIN)is true?
A. It mimics the normal first phase insulin reaction.
B. It sensitizes cells to the action of insulin.
C. It decreases carbohydrate absorption from the gut.
D. It should be taken 30 minutes after eating.
For many years, women have been prescribed estrogen with or without progesterone at menopause to reduce hotflashes and protect the bones and blood vessels. In 2002 the Women's Health Initiative published findings (JAMA 2002 Jul 17;288(3):366-8) substantiated by other reviews (JAMA 2002 Aug 21;288(7):872-81) that showed the effect of postmenopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to include:
A. Large reduction in risk of breast cancer.
B. NO reduction in risk of heart attack and stroke.
C. Small reduction in risk of gall bladder disease.
D. Large increase in the risk of osteoporotic bone fractures.
A patient is to receive 12 units of regular insulin AND sliding scale insulin as follows: for BS (blood sugar) less than 80: give sugar, for BS 81-140: give no insulin, for BS 141-200 give 2 units regular insulin, for BS 201-250 give 4 units regular insulin, for BS 251-300 give 6 units regular insulin, for BS 301-350 give 8 units regular insulin. For BS over 350 give 10 units regular insulin. This morning the blood sugar was 40. What should you do?
Student Response Correct Answer
A. Give 12 units Humalog insulin with sugar.
B. Give 12 units Humulin-R with sugar.
C. Give 12 units Humulin-N with sugar.
D. Give sugar.
LC is a 33 year old who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past 8 years. To assess her risk of having adverse effects from this medication, the most important question you should ask is:
A. "Are you allergic to eggs?"
B. "Do you smoke?"
C. "Has anyone in your family died of colon cancer?"
D. "Have any family members been diagnosed with osteoporosis?"
When teaching an elderly client how to take calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis, your best statement would be:
A. Take 240 mg sustained release Calan each morning.
B. Take 1 500 mg calcium carbonate in the morning on an empty
stomach.
C. Take 1 100 mg tablet of calcium citrate with each meal.
D. Take 2 500 mg tablets of calcium carbonate every evening with your
meal.
Which of the following drugs would INCREASE the cardiovascular adverse effects of thyroid hormones?
A. acetominophen
B. beta blockers
C. parasympathomimetic drugs
D. sympathomimetic drugs
H.W. is a 56 year old male who has type 2 diabetes. He is taking glipizide (GLUCOTROL) and acarbose (PRECOSE). He shows evidence of hypoglycemia. How should this be treated?
A. administer insulin
B. give him sugar
C. give him a high protein supplement
D. take his blood pressure and watch carefully
Match the drug to its MAJOR mechanism of aciton.
glipizide (GLUCOTROL) Replaces insulin
acarbose (PRECOSE) Increases insulin release
repaglinide (PRANDIN) Delays absorption of carbohydrate
NPH insulin
LC is a 33 year old who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past 8 years. To assess her risk of having adverse effects from this medication, the most important question you should ask is:
A. "Do you smoke?"
B. "Has anyone in your family died of colon cancer?"
C. "Are you allergic to eggs?"
D. "Have any family members been diagnosed with osteoporosis?"
Which of the following is the least expensive prevention for osteoporosis?
A. Flomax
B. Evista
C. Forteo
D. Calcium supplements with vitamin D
After subcutaneous administration of regular insulin, the peak effect is seen:
A. within 5-10 minutes
B. in 2-4 hours
C. in 8-12 hours
D. after 2 weeks of therapy
Which of the following are adverse effects of glipizide (GLUCOTROL)?
A. hypertension
B. headache
C. chest pain
D. muscle pain
Courtesy of Vanessa Kelly, Thanks!!!
LC is a 33 year old who has been taking oral contraceptives. She reports a recent weight gain and says her right foot is so swollen she can barely get her shoe on. Her left foot is normal. What is the significance of these complaints?
A. She is probably pregnant, and should pick up an over-the-counter kit to check before she takes any more BCPs.
B. These symptoms may eventually require a trip to the doctor, but they are not related to the BCPs.
C. She is showing signs of menopause and could probably safely stop taking the BCPs without getting pregnant.
D. She has probably developed a blood clot in her right leg (thrombophlebitis), and should go to the hospital to have it checked.
H.B. is a 48 year old male who is being treated for type 2 diabetes with oral agents. He reports his usual fasting blood glucose is 168, bedtime glucose is 180, and A1c is 10.2. Which of the following statements is true about H.B.?
A. He should stay on the same medications.
B. He needs additional medicine.
C. He needs lower doses of medicine.
D. His diabetes has resolved.
Your diabetic patient is to receive 8 units of regular insulin AND sliding scale insulin as follows: for BS (blood sugar) less than 80: give sugar, for BS 81-140: give no insulin, for BS 141-200 give 2 units regular insulin, for BS 201-250 give 4 units regular insulin, for BS 251-300 give 6 units regular insulin, for BS 301-350 give 8 units regular insulin. For BS over 350 give 10 units regular insulin. This morning the blood sugar was 145. What should you do?
A. Give 8 units Humalog and 2 units Humulin-R.
B. Give 10 units Humulin-R.
C. Give 8 units Humalog.
D. Give 12 units Humulin-N.
Thursday, November 6, 2008
Pre 10 hormones/osteo
Which of the following is an adverse effect of the oral contraceptives?
A. hypertension
B. acne
C. decrease in breast size
D. pregnancy
Which of the following reflects adverse effects of oral contraceptives?
A. hypoglycemia
B. bronchospasm
C. blood clots
D. atrophy of secondary sex organs
Your cousin has complained of fatigue for some time. You notice she is gaining weight and that her skin has become very dry. She is cold all the time and is not as sharp mentally as she used to be. Her primary care provider says she has a thyroid problem that needs pharmacological support. Which of the following drugs should she take?
A. progesterone
B. a sympathomimetic drug
C. methimazole (TAPAZOLE)
D. levothyroxine (SYNTHROID)
K.R. is a 30 year old type 1 diabetic. He takes regular insulin four times a day. He is complaining that he is really hungry, feels weak, and has a headache. You notice that he is confused and his heart rate is increased and he is sweating. The most likely reason for these symptoms is
A. allergy.
B. hypoglycemia.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. lipodystrophy.
Production of thyroid hormones requires adequate dietary intake of
A. calcium.
B. vitamin B12.
C. iodine/iodide.
D. cholesterol
A patient should be told to take rosiglitizone:
1. 3x/day, 30 minutes after each meal.
2. Without regard to meals.
3. By injecting it into a different site each day.
4. 3x/day, 30 minutes before each meal.
Which of the following would be expected in a patient who needed a higher dose of thyroid hormone replacement?
A. weight loss
B. cough
C. fatigue
D. tachycardia
If you client received too much NPH insulin at 8am, you would anticipate a hypoglycemic reaction would occur
A. between 0800 (8 am) and 1400 (2pm)
B. between 1200 (noon) and 2000 (8 pm)
C. between 2000 (8 pm) and 2400 (midnight) that night
D. NPH does not usually cause hypoglycemia
A patient should be told to take insulin glargine:
A. 5-10 minutes before a meal.
B. Once a day at bedtime.
C. 30 minutes before a meal.
D. 60 minutes before the morning meal.
If your client took regular insulin at 0700 (7am) but forgot to eat, what time would a hypoglycemic reaction be most likely to occur?
A. 0900 (9am)
B. 1500 (3pm)
C. 1800 (6 pm)
D. 2100 (9 pm)
Inadequate dietary intake of iodide/iodine would result in defective production of
A. T3 and T4
B. aldosterone.
C. calcitonin.
D. insulin.
Thanks Nazia Khan for the extra question, we really appreciate it!!!
A. hypertension
B. acne
C. decrease in breast size
D. pregnancy
Which of the following reflects adverse effects of oral contraceptives?
A. hypoglycemia
B. bronchospasm
C. blood clots
D. atrophy of secondary sex organs
Your cousin has complained of fatigue for some time. You notice she is gaining weight and that her skin has become very dry. She is cold all the time and is not as sharp mentally as she used to be. Her primary care provider says she has a thyroid problem that needs pharmacological support. Which of the following drugs should she take?
A. progesterone
B. a sympathomimetic drug
C. methimazole (TAPAZOLE)
D. levothyroxine (SYNTHROID)
K.R. is a 30 year old type 1 diabetic. He takes regular insulin four times a day. He is complaining that he is really hungry, feels weak, and has a headache. You notice that he is confused and his heart rate is increased and he is sweating. The most likely reason for these symptoms is
A. allergy.
B. hypoglycemia.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. lipodystrophy.
Production of thyroid hormones requires adequate dietary intake of
A. calcium.
B. vitamin B12.
C. iodine/iodide.
D. cholesterol
A patient should be told to take rosiglitizone:
1. 3x/day, 30 minutes after each meal.
2. Without regard to meals.
3. By injecting it into a different site each day.
4. 3x/day, 30 minutes before each meal.
Which of the following would be expected in a patient who needed a higher dose of thyroid hormone replacement?
A. weight loss
B. cough
C. fatigue
D. tachycardia
If you client received too much NPH insulin at 8am, you would anticipate a hypoglycemic reaction would occur
A. between 0800 (8 am) and 1400 (2pm)
B. between 1200 (noon) and 2000 (8 pm)
C. between 2000 (8 pm) and 2400 (midnight) that night
D. NPH does not usually cause hypoglycemia
A patient should be told to take insulin glargine:
A. 5-10 minutes before a meal.
B. Once a day at bedtime.
C. 30 minutes before a meal.
D. 60 minutes before the morning meal.
If your client took regular insulin at 0700 (7am) but forgot to eat, what time would a hypoglycemic reaction be most likely to occur?
A. 0900 (9am)
B. 1500 (3pm)
C. 1800 (6 pm)
D. 2100 (9 pm)
Inadequate dietary intake of iodide/iodine would result in defective production of
A. T3 and T4
B. aldosterone.
C. calcitonin.
D. insulin.
Thanks Nazia Khan for the extra question, we really appreciate it!!!
Post 9 Dysrhy/CAD
The mechanism of action of verapamil (CALAN) is
A. blocking calcium channels.
B. blocking sodium channels.
C. blocking the SNS.
D. blocking potassium channels
The major reason why beta blockers such as metoprolol are useful in the treatment of angina is because they
A. increase preload.
B. dilate coronary vessels.
C. decrease heart work.
D. reduce oxygen extraction.
A Class II antidysrhythmic such as the beta-blocker propranolol (INDERAL) is useful in treating dysrhythmia, however you should asess the patient for
A. bronchospasm.
B. an increase in blood pressure.
C. tachycardia.
D. a low potassium level.
The electrophysiological basis of automaticity is
B. slow leak of sodium into the cell.
C. rapid influx of potassium.
D. rapid influx of calcium.
Adenosine may be given by rapid intraveneous push to treat:
A. Heart failure
B. Bradycardia
C. Severe wheezing in asthmatics
D. Very rapid, regular heart rate
In general, antidysrhythmic drugs
A. Increase automaticity, speed conduction rates, and increase
refractoriness
B. Decrease automaticity, speed conduction rates, and decrease
refractoriness
C. Increase automaticity, slow conduction rates, and decrease
refractoriness
D. Decrease automaticity, slow conduction rates, and increase
refractoriness
A patient having chest pain at home would be instructed to:
A. Check their blood pressure and take an alpha-1 agonist.
B. Check their blood pressure and take a beta-blocker by mouth.
C. Apply a topical calcium channel agonist to the chest wall.
D. Put a nitroglycerine tablet under their tongue, and take an
aspirin.
Which 2 drugs should essentially all patients with suspected heart attack have within the first 24 hours?
A. prednisone and sotalol
B. clopidogrel and nitroglycerine
C. labetalol and aspirin
D. abciximab and dilitiazem
An elderly patient has premature ventricular contractions at a rate of 1-2 minute. This patient should receive:
A. amiodarone
B. atropine
C. digoxin
D. no drug therapy
This patient walked in complaining of lightheadedness. She was found to be in rapid atrial fibrillation, a rhythm she has been in on several different admissions. Most practitioners would treat this:
A. By trying to pharmacologically convert her out of the fibrillation with oral
amiodarone.
B. By trying to electrically convert her out of the rhythm with cardioversion
(shock).
C. By trying to pharmacologically convert her out of the fibrillation with
intraveneous amiodarone.
D. By slowing her ventricular rate down with verapamil, but leaving the atrium
fibrillating.
The major reason why calcium channel blockers such as verapamil (CALAN) are useful in the treatment of angina is because they
A. reduce oxygen extraction.
B. increase preload.
C. decrease heart work.
D. constrict plaque size.
All of the following are predictable adverse reactions of nitroglycerin EXCEPT
A. headache.
B. hypotension.
C. chest pain.
D. tachycardia.
The electrophysiological basis for repolarization is:
A. passive diffusion of calcium out of the cell
B. slow leak of sodium into the cell
C. active pumping of potassium out of the cell
D. rapid influx of calcium into the cell
Electrical procedures such as pacemakers, ablations and defibrillation has replaced the use of dysrhythmics in many situations because:
A. It eliminates problems with patients not being compliant with the
medications.
B. The procedures are covered under the 100,000 Lives Guidelines.
C. The procedures are more effective and have fewer adverse effects than the
medicines do.
D. They are less expensive for the patient than a lifetime supply of the
medication.
A patient receives alteplase after a heart attack. What is the most important side effect to watch for?
A. bleeding
B. urinary retention
C. nausea
D. hearing loss
This slow rhythm has cuased the patinet's blood pressure to drop too low. While waiting for a pacemaker to be put in, you might give:
A. dilitiazem
B. amiodarone
C. atropine
D. metoprolol
An elderly patient who is taking a long acting form of nitroglycerin is at risk of falling because of
A. dizziness or fainting.
B. headaches.
C. increased preload.
D. slowing of the heart rate.
5.
Digoxin may be used to treat very rapid supraventricular heart rates such as those that may occur in atrial fibrillation because it
A. increases the rate of conduction through the atrioventricular node
B. decreases SNS stimulation of the heart and decreases AV conduction.
C. decreases PNS activity
D. increases potassium excretion.
The nurse notes tall peaked T waves on the EKG. What is the most important additional assessment data to collect?
EKGhyperkalemia.jpg
A. Pulse.
B. Blood pressure.
C. Serum potassium.
D. Serum sodium.
Which of the following generalized statements about antidysrhythmic drugs is true?
A. They cause hypertension and tachycardia.
B. They cause impotence and poor pregnancy outcomes.
C. They cause dysrhythmia
D. They increase automaticity, speed conduction rates, and increase refractoriness.
Mrs. Jones was admitted to CICU with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). Her hospital course was uneventful. When you prepare her for discharge, you would expect her to have prescriptions for
A. sildenafil if her heart rate is over 80
B. a statin if her LDL cholesterol is greater than 100
C. digoxin if her ejection fraction is over 60%
D. low molecular weight heparin if her aPTT is high
A. blocking calcium channels.
B. blocking sodium channels.
C. blocking the SNS.
D. blocking potassium channels
The major reason why beta blockers such as metoprolol are useful in the treatment of angina is because they
A. increase preload.
B. dilate coronary vessels.
C. decrease heart work.
D. reduce oxygen extraction.
A Class II antidysrhythmic such as the beta-blocker propranolol (INDERAL) is useful in treating dysrhythmia, however you should asess the patient for
A. bronchospasm.
B. an increase in blood pressure.
C. tachycardia.
D. a low potassium level.
The electrophysiological basis of automaticity is
B. slow leak of sodium into the cell.
C. rapid influx of potassium.
D. rapid influx of calcium.
Adenosine may be given by rapid intraveneous push to treat:
A. Heart failure
B. Bradycardia
C. Severe wheezing in asthmatics
D. Very rapid, regular heart rate
In general, antidysrhythmic drugs
A. Increase automaticity, speed conduction rates, and increase
refractoriness
B. Decrease automaticity, speed conduction rates, and decrease
refractoriness
C. Increase automaticity, slow conduction rates, and decrease
refractoriness
D. Decrease automaticity, slow conduction rates, and increase
refractoriness
A patient having chest pain at home would be instructed to:
A. Check their blood pressure and take an alpha-1 agonist.
B. Check their blood pressure and take a beta-blocker by mouth.
C. Apply a topical calcium channel agonist to the chest wall.
D. Put a nitroglycerine tablet under their tongue, and take an
aspirin.
Which 2 drugs should essentially all patients with suspected heart attack have within the first 24 hours?
A. prednisone and sotalol
B. clopidogrel and nitroglycerine
C. labetalol and aspirin
D. abciximab and dilitiazem
An elderly patient has premature ventricular contractions at a rate of 1-2 minute. This patient should receive:
A. amiodarone
B. atropine
C. digoxin
D. no drug therapy
This patient walked in complaining of lightheadedness. She was found to be in rapid atrial fibrillation, a rhythm she has been in on several different admissions. Most practitioners would treat this:
A. By trying to pharmacologically convert her out of the fibrillation with oral
amiodarone.
B. By trying to electrically convert her out of the rhythm with cardioversion
(shock).
C. By trying to pharmacologically convert her out of the fibrillation with
intraveneous amiodarone.
D. By slowing her ventricular rate down with verapamil, but leaving the atrium
fibrillating.
The major reason why calcium channel blockers such as verapamil (CALAN) are useful in the treatment of angina is because they
A. reduce oxygen extraction.
B. increase preload.
C. decrease heart work.
D. constrict plaque size.
All of the following are predictable adverse reactions of nitroglycerin EXCEPT
A. headache.
B. hypotension.
C. chest pain.
D. tachycardia.
The electrophysiological basis for repolarization is:
A. passive diffusion of calcium out of the cell
B. slow leak of sodium into the cell
C. active pumping of potassium out of the cell
D. rapid influx of calcium into the cell
Electrical procedures such as pacemakers, ablations and defibrillation has replaced the use of dysrhythmics in many situations because:
A. It eliminates problems with patients not being compliant with the
medications.
B. The procedures are covered under the 100,000 Lives Guidelines.
C. The procedures are more effective and have fewer adverse effects than the
medicines do.
D. They are less expensive for the patient than a lifetime supply of the
medication.
A patient receives alteplase after a heart attack. What is the most important side effect to watch for?
A. bleeding
B. urinary retention
C. nausea
D. hearing loss
This slow rhythm has cuased the patinet's blood pressure to drop too low. While waiting for a pacemaker to be put in, you might give:
A. dilitiazem
B. amiodarone
C. atropine
D. metoprolol
An elderly patient who is taking a long acting form of nitroglycerin is at risk of falling because of
A. dizziness or fainting.
B. headaches.
C. increased preload.
D. slowing of the heart rate.
5.
Digoxin may be used to treat very rapid supraventricular heart rates such as those that may occur in atrial fibrillation because it
A. increases the rate of conduction through the atrioventricular node
B. decreases SNS stimulation of the heart and decreases AV conduction.
C. decreases PNS activity
D. increases potassium excretion.
The nurse notes tall peaked T waves on the EKG. What is the most important additional assessment data to collect?
EKGhyperkalemia.jpg
A. Pulse.
B. Blood pressure.
C. Serum potassium.
D. Serum sodium.
Which of the following generalized statements about antidysrhythmic drugs is true?
A. They cause hypertension and tachycardia.
B. They cause impotence and poor pregnancy outcomes.
C. They cause dysrhythmia
D. They increase automaticity, speed conduction rates, and increase refractoriness.
Mrs. Jones was admitted to CICU with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). Her hospital course was uneventful. When you prepare her for discharge, you would expect her to have prescriptions for
A. sildenafil if her heart rate is over 80
B. a statin if her LDL cholesterol is greater than 100
C. digoxin if her ejection fraction is over 60%
D. low molecular weight heparin if her aPTT is high
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