Courtesy of Sean Knight (Thanks!!) since I haven't done mine yet.
The antidote for heparin (LIQUAEMIN) is
A. aminocaproic acid (AMICAR).
B. acetylsalacylic acid (ASPIRIN).
C. protamine sulfate.
D. vitamin K.
Warfarin (COUMADIN)is an anaticoagulant that reaches therapeutic levels in:
A. minutes.
B. hours.
C. days.
D. weeks.
The effectiveness of a vaccine can be measured by:
A. Measuring the level of the vaccination in the blood.
B. Giving a small test booster dose of the vaccination.
C. Measuring the amount of antibody in the blood
D. Giving a large test booster dose of the vaccination
An infant who has received all scheduled immunization comes in for a 1 year check up. What new immunizations will be given?
A. Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis
B. Hepatitis A and B
C. Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Varicella
D. H. Influenza, polio, and pneumococcal
The main side effect of all anticoagulants is:
A. bleeding.
B. white blood cell clotting.
C. excessive red blood cell production.
D. activation of the clotting cascade.
Additional Questions from my quiz
A patient has a thrombus in a vein and requires immediate anticoagulation. This best drug to use for this is:
A. Warfarin (COUMADIN).
B. Protamine sulfate.
C. Vitamin K.
D. Heparin (LIQUAEMIN).
The antidote for warfarin sodium (COUMADIN)is
A. aminocaproic acid (AMICAR).
B. acetylsalacylic acid (ASPIRIN).
C. protamine sulfate.
D. vitamin K.
A patient has a thrombus in a vein and requires immediate anticoagulation. This best drug to use for this is:
A. Warfarin (COUMADIN).
B. Protamine sulfate.
C. Vitamin K.
D. Heparin (LIQUAEMIN).
At 3 months old, which vaccinations should have been given?
A. measles, mumps, rubella, haemophilus influenza
B. diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, haemophilus influenza, Hepatitis B, polio
C. varicellar, haemolphilus influenza, measles, mumps
D. hepatitis A and B, diptheria, varicella
A predictable side effect of either heparin (LIQUAEMIN) or warfarin (COUMADIN)is:
A. bronchospasm.
B. hypertension.
C. bleeding.
D. fatigue.
Tuesday, September 30, 2008
Sunday, September 28, 2008
Post 4 Infect
Serious adverse reactions to the aminoglycoside antibiotics such as gentamicin are:
A. ringing in the ears and metallic taste in the mouth
B. kidney failure and loss of hearing
C. localized pain over the upper cheeks and eyes
D. liver failure
Infections caused by beta-lactamase producing bacteria may be treated with:
A. Use of a broad spectrum antibiotic such as amoxicillin.
B. An antibiotic with minimal oral absorbtion such as neomycin.
C. An antibiotic with a beta-lactam ring, such as penicillin.
D. An antibiotic prepared with an enzyme inhibitor such as clavulonate.
Drugs effective against tuberculosis include:
A. amphotericin B, fluconazole, nystatin
B. lamivudine, indinavir, zidovudine
C. vancomycin, amikacin, cefotaxime
D. rifabutin, ethambutol, isoniazid
Sue is a 19 year old sexually active female being seen in a family planning clinic for birth control. Her routine annual screening for chlamydia was positive despite being asymptomatic. She has no drug allergies. Should she be treated? With what drug(s), dose and for how long?
A. Yes, she should be treated with Zidovudine (x 7days) and Indinavir (x 7days) by mouth.
B. Yes, she should be treated with Mycostatin vaginal cream for 7 days.
C. Yes, she should be treated with Azithromycin (x 1 dose)
D. No, she does not need to be treated.
Robert is a 42-year-old prison guard whose annual TB skin test converted this year, with a 20-mm induration. He does not feel sick. Several of the inmates are receiving treatment for TB. What treatment if any should he receive?
A. 2 weeks of metronidazole
B. A single dose of streptomycin
C. 6-9 months of isoniazid
D. No treatment is needed.
With therapeutic doses of ticarcillin, brain (CSF) concentrations of 15 mcg/ml are acheivable. You get a report from the laboratory that there is a bacteria in the patient's CSF that has an ticarcillin "MIC" of 128 mcg/ml. This means:
A. You could treat the infection with ticarcillin.
B. You could treat the infection with ticarcillin, but it would have to be high dose.
C. The bacteria is resistant to ticarcillin.
D. The patient is allergic to ticarcillin.
Match the drug to its main mechanism of action.
Penicillin
Sulfonamides
Aminoglycosides
Flouroquinolones
a. inhibit protein synthesis
b. inhibit cell wall synthesis
c. inhibit nucleic acid syntheisis
d. antimetabolite, competition for folate
The main use of metronidazole is in the treatment of:
A. Superficial skin infections.
B. Intestinal amebias and anaerobic infections
C. Viral infections of the throat.
D. Malaria.
A patient insured by Aetna has an infection and is being considered for therapy with Zyvox (Linezolid). You know that:
A. Aetna will not permit their customers to have Zyvox.
B. Prior approval is required to have insurance pay for the Zyvox (Linezolid).
C. Aetna prefers this inexpensive, effective drug treatment for vancomycin and methicillin susceptible infections.
D. Aetna will only pay for this drug if the patient has been insured by Aetna for over 3 years.
While making a home visit to a patient, you want to verify that the patient understands his medications. The patient tells you he took his cefuroxime once a day for the first 3 days, then twice a day for 3 days and now he is up to three times a day. Which would be your best response?
A. And were you able to tolerate the side effects alright building up to a therapeutic dose like that?
B. May I see the directions on the bottle? That's a very unusual way to take an antibiotic.
C. You must have had a previous allergy to that medicine. Are you having any rashes or difficulty breathing now?
D. Will you increase the dose again or stay at 3 tablets each day?
Ototoxicity (ear) and nephrotoxicity (kidney) are serious side effects of which of the following drug classes?
A. aminoglycosides
B. rifampins
C. penicillins
D. sulfonamides
Which of the following drug(s) is/are used in the treatment of tuberculosis?
A. azithromycin and ciprofloxacin
B. rifampin and isoniazid
C. phenazopyridine
D. echinacea
Michael is a 10-month-old seen in a primary care office with a 4-day history of runny nose. Yesterday he was rubbing his ear and was described by his mother as being "cranky". He looks sick and has a high fever 39.5). Tympanic membranes in his ears are red and swollen. He has not been treated for ear infections in the past and has no known allergies. Should he be treated? What medicine might be appropriate?
A. Yes, he should be hospitalized and treated with intravenous vancomycin for 14 days.
B. No, he does not require treatment. He probably has a viral irritation of the ear which will resolve on its own without treatment. Over-prescribing antibiotics lead to resistance.
C. Yes, he should be treated as an outpatient with ampicillin for 10 days.
D. Yes, he should be treated as an outpatient with oral vancomycin for 7 days.
You go to employee health after being stuck deep into your muscle with a needle containing blood from a patient with end-stage AIDS. Which of the following should happen?
A. You will be placed on broad spectrum antibiotics such as imipenem and taken to the operating room to have the wound thoroughly cleaned out.
B. It will be recommended that you take zidovudine, lamivudine and perhaps indinavir, starting within hours of the needlestick.
C. You will be offered zidovudine as single drug therapy.
D. Nystatin (MYCOSTATIN) will be applied topically to the wound after it has been thoroughly cleaned.
Match the drug to its mechanism of action or target organism.
Rifampin
Trimethoprim
Cephalosporins
a. interferes with folic acid metabolism
b. inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
c. inhibits cell wall synthesis
The main use of tetracyclines is in the treatment of:
A. Skin, lung and urinary tract infections.
B. Infections in pregnant women and infants.
C. Viral infections of the throat.
D. Malaria.
A patient insured by Medical has a fungal infection and is being considered for therapy with Sporanox (Itraconazole). You know that:
A. Patients on Medical cannot get Sporanox.
B. Prior approval is required to have Medical pay for the Sporanox.
C. Medical prefers this inexpensive, effective drug treatment for all fungal infections.
D. Sporanox is not effective against fungal infections.
Azithromycin can be useful for treating:
A. Some community-acquired pneumonias and sexually transmitted infections
B. Inflammatory pain in the joints not responsive to NSAIDS
C. Seizures in patients allergic to macrolides
D. Drug resistant strains of HIV
Additional Questions
You are splashed on your intact skin with normal looking, yellow urine from an HIV positive patient. Center for Disease Control Guidelines would advise you to:
A. Take a 4 week course of zidovudine, lamivudine, and indinavir.
B. Take a single dose of fluconazole (DIFLUCAN), and have an HIV test done.
C. Take a 6 month course of metronidazole (FLAGYL).
D. No prophylaxis will be offered.
Martha is a 70-year-old female who is brought from home to the emergency department by her daughter with a three-day history of "flu" and a one-day history of coughing purulent sputum. She has no co-morbidities except mild congestive heart failure. Her vital signs are: temp 38.1, pulse 100, respirations 26, BP130/80, 92% oxygen saturation on room air. Chemistries labs are normal. The WBC is 16,000 with left shift indicating new infection. Her chest X-ray shows an abnormal consolidation but no effusion. She is allergic to penicillin, which caused a rash.Should she receive drug treatment for an infection?
A. Yes, she should receive a single dose of oral vancomycin and followed up as an outpatient.
B. No treatment is needed. This pneumonia is probably caused by a virus, so she just needs some tike to get better.
C. Yes, she should be treated in the hospital with intravenous ampicillin for 2 weeks.
D. Yes, a fluroquinolone such as levofloxacin would be effective outpatient treatment.
A. ringing in the ears and metallic taste in the mouth
B. kidney failure and loss of hearing
C. localized pain over the upper cheeks and eyes
D. liver failure
Infections caused by beta-lactamase producing bacteria may be treated with:
A. Use of a broad spectrum antibiotic such as amoxicillin.
B. An antibiotic with minimal oral absorbtion such as neomycin.
C. An antibiotic with a beta-lactam ring, such as penicillin.
D. An antibiotic prepared with an enzyme inhibitor such as clavulonate.
Drugs effective against tuberculosis include:
A. amphotericin B, fluconazole, nystatin
B. lamivudine, indinavir, zidovudine
C. vancomycin, amikacin, cefotaxime
D. rifabutin, ethambutol, isoniazid
Sue is a 19 year old sexually active female being seen in a family planning clinic for birth control. Her routine annual screening for chlamydia was positive despite being asymptomatic. She has no drug allergies. Should she be treated? With what drug(s), dose and for how long?
A. Yes, she should be treated with Zidovudine (x 7days) and Indinavir (x 7days) by mouth.
B. Yes, she should be treated with Mycostatin vaginal cream for 7 days.
C. Yes, she should be treated with Azithromycin (x 1 dose)
D. No, she does not need to be treated.
Robert is a 42-year-old prison guard whose annual TB skin test converted this year, with a 20-mm induration. He does not feel sick. Several of the inmates are receiving treatment for TB. What treatment if any should he receive?
A. 2 weeks of metronidazole
B. A single dose of streptomycin
C. 6-9 months of isoniazid
D. No treatment is needed.
With therapeutic doses of ticarcillin, brain (CSF) concentrations of 15 mcg/ml are acheivable. You get a report from the laboratory that there is a bacteria in the patient's CSF that has an ticarcillin "MIC" of 128 mcg/ml. This means:
A. You could treat the infection with ticarcillin.
B. You could treat the infection with ticarcillin, but it would have to be high dose.
C. The bacteria is resistant to ticarcillin.
D. The patient is allergic to ticarcillin.
Match the drug to its main mechanism of action.
Penicillin
Sulfonamides
Aminoglycosides
Flouroquinolones
a. inhibit protein synthesis
b. inhibit cell wall synthesis
c. inhibit nucleic acid syntheisis
d. antimetabolite, competition for folate
The main use of metronidazole is in the treatment of:
A. Superficial skin infections.
B. Intestinal amebias and anaerobic infections
C. Viral infections of the throat.
D. Malaria.
A patient insured by Aetna has an infection and is being considered for therapy with Zyvox (Linezolid). You know that:
A. Aetna will not permit their customers to have Zyvox.
B. Prior approval is required to have insurance pay for the Zyvox (Linezolid).
C. Aetna prefers this inexpensive, effective drug treatment for vancomycin and methicillin susceptible infections.
D. Aetna will only pay for this drug if the patient has been insured by Aetna for over 3 years.
While making a home visit to a patient, you want to verify that the patient understands his medications. The patient tells you he took his cefuroxime once a day for the first 3 days, then twice a day for 3 days and now he is up to three times a day. Which would be your best response?
A. And were you able to tolerate the side effects alright building up to a therapeutic dose like that?
B. May I see the directions on the bottle? That's a very unusual way to take an antibiotic.
C. You must have had a previous allergy to that medicine. Are you having any rashes or difficulty breathing now?
D. Will you increase the dose again or stay at 3 tablets each day?
Ototoxicity (ear) and nephrotoxicity (kidney) are serious side effects of which of the following drug classes?
A. aminoglycosides
B. rifampins
C. penicillins
D. sulfonamides
Which of the following drug(s) is/are used in the treatment of tuberculosis?
A. azithromycin and ciprofloxacin
B. rifampin and isoniazid
C. phenazopyridine
D. echinacea
Michael is a 10-month-old seen in a primary care office with a 4-day history of runny nose. Yesterday he was rubbing his ear and was described by his mother as being "cranky". He looks sick and has a high fever 39.5). Tympanic membranes in his ears are red and swollen. He has not been treated for ear infections in the past and has no known allergies. Should he be treated? What medicine might be appropriate?
A. Yes, he should be hospitalized and treated with intravenous vancomycin for 14 days.
B. No, he does not require treatment. He probably has a viral irritation of the ear which will resolve on its own without treatment. Over-prescribing antibiotics lead to resistance.
C. Yes, he should be treated as an outpatient with ampicillin for 10 days.
D. Yes, he should be treated as an outpatient with oral vancomycin for 7 days.
You go to employee health after being stuck deep into your muscle with a needle containing blood from a patient with end-stage AIDS. Which of the following should happen?
A. You will be placed on broad spectrum antibiotics such as imipenem and taken to the operating room to have the wound thoroughly cleaned out.
B. It will be recommended that you take zidovudine, lamivudine and perhaps indinavir, starting within hours of the needlestick.
C. You will be offered zidovudine as single drug therapy.
D. Nystatin (MYCOSTATIN) will be applied topically to the wound after it has been thoroughly cleaned.
Match the drug to its mechanism of action or target organism.
Rifampin
Trimethoprim
Cephalosporins
a. interferes with folic acid metabolism
b. inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
c. inhibits cell wall synthesis
The main use of tetracyclines is in the treatment of:
A. Skin, lung and urinary tract infections.
B. Infections in pregnant women and infants.
C. Viral infections of the throat.
D. Malaria.
A patient insured by Medical has a fungal infection and is being considered for therapy with Sporanox (Itraconazole). You know that:
A. Patients on Medical cannot get Sporanox.
B. Prior approval is required to have Medical pay for the Sporanox.
C. Medical prefers this inexpensive, effective drug treatment for all fungal infections.
D. Sporanox is not effective against fungal infections.
Azithromycin can be useful for treating:
A. Some community-acquired pneumonias and sexually transmitted infections
B. Inflammatory pain in the joints not responsive to NSAIDS
C. Seizures in patients allergic to macrolides
D. Drug resistant strains of HIV
Additional Questions
You are splashed on your intact skin with normal looking, yellow urine from an HIV positive patient. Center for Disease Control Guidelines would advise you to:
A. Take a 4 week course of zidovudine, lamivudine, and indinavir.
B. Take a single dose of fluconazole (DIFLUCAN), and have an HIV test done.
C. Take a 6 month course of metronidazole (FLAGYL).
D. No prophylaxis will be offered.
Martha is a 70-year-old female who is brought from home to the emergency department by her daughter with a three-day history of "flu" and a one-day history of coughing purulent sputum. She has no co-morbidities except mild congestive heart failure. Her vital signs are: temp 38.1, pulse 100, respirations 26, BP130/80, 92% oxygen saturation on room air. Chemistries labs are normal. The WBC is 16,000 with left shift indicating new infection. Her chest X-ray shows an abnormal consolidation but no effusion. She is allergic to penicillin, which caused a rash.Should she receive drug treatment for an infection?
A. Yes, she should receive a single dose of oral vancomycin and followed up as an outpatient.
B. No treatment is needed. This pneumonia is probably caused by a virus, so she just needs some tike to get better.
C. Yes, she should be treated in the hospital with intravenous ampicillin for 2 weeks.
D. Yes, a fluroquinolone such as levofloxacin would be effective outpatient treatment.
Friday, September 26, 2008
Pre 4 Infect
Examples of antibiotics in the cephalosporin class include:
A. azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin
B. amoxicillin, nafcillin, pipercillin
C. cefazolin, cephalexin, ceftriaxone
D. amikacin, gentamicin, tobramycin
Match the drug to its mechanism of action or target organism.
Rifampin a A inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Trimethoprim c C interferes with folic acid metabolism
Cephalosporins b B inhibits cell wall synthesis
A patient who has been on antibiotics for several weeks now has an infection with fungus and a bacteria resistant to the antibiotic which was previously taken. This patient is said to have:
A. Viralemia.
B. A super-infection.
C. Multimicrobial Supplantation Syndrome
D. Prophylactic propagation
Patients who will be taking drugs to treat infection are instructed to take every dose as prescribed. The main reason for doing this is to:
A. Decrease the possibility of acquiring an allergy to the drug.
B. Manage the infection without developing resistance to the drug.
C. Prevent the patient from saving left over drug to use in a future infection when it may not be the appropriate choice.
D. Limit costs associated with drug therapy.
What teaching is important for patients receiving a tetracyline antibiotic?
A. Take with food or milk.
B. Narrow spectrum, superinfection unlikely.
C. Avoid exposure to sun.
D. Safe to use in pregnancy.
General Feedback: Tetracylines are broad spectrum so superinfection risk is relatively high. They bind divalent cations, such as iron or calcium so should not be taken with milk or absorption could be decreased by up to 50%! If used during pregnancy or under 9yo, it binds to calcium in bones and discolors teeth permananetly. it does make skin more sensitive to burning.
Examples of antibiotics in the penicillin class include:
A. cefazolin, cephalexin, ceftriaxone
B. azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin
C. amoxicillin, nafcillin, pipercillin
D. amikacin, gentamicin, tobramycin
Resistance to antibiotics can be minimized by:
A. early treatment of all viral infections.
B. limiting use of prophylactic antibiotics.
C. teaching patients to stop taking the antibiotic when the symptoms of infection resolve.
D. using broad spectrum antibiotics whenever possible
Match the drug to its main mechanism of action.
Penicillin a. inhibit nucleic acid syntheisis
Sulfonamides b. inhibit cell wall synthesis
Aminoglycosides c. antimetabolite, competition for folate
Flouroquinolones d. inhibit protein synthesis
A "superinfection" refers to:
A. An infection with a resistant organism.
B. The presence of several different organisms in an infected site.
C. Overgrowth of undesired microbes when normal flora has been destroyed by antibiotic therapy.
D. Infection with a fungus.
A. azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin
B. amoxicillin, nafcillin, pipercillin
C. cefazolin, cephalexin, ceftriaxone
D. amikacin, gentamicin, tobramycin
Match the drug to its mechanism of action or target organism.
Rifampin a A inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Trimethoprim c C interferes with folic acid metabolism
Cephalosporins b B inhibits cell wall synthesis
A patient who has been on antibiotics for several weeks now has an infection with fungus and a bacteria resistant to the antibiotic which was previously taken. This patient is said to have:
A. Viralemia.
B. A super-infection.
C. Multimicrobial Supplantation Syndrome
D. Prophylactic propagation
Patients who will be taking drugs to treat infection are instructed to take every dose as prescribed. The main reason for doing this is to:
A. Decrease the possibility of acquiring an allergy to the drug.
B. Manage the infection without developing resistance to the drug.
C. Prevent the patient from saving left over drug to use in a future infection when it may not be the appropriate choice.
D. Limit costs associated with drug therapy.
What teaching is important for patients receiving a tetracyline antibiotic?
A. Take with food or milk.
B. Narrow spectrum, superinfection unlikely.
C. Avoid exposure to sun.
D. Safe to use in pregnancy.
General Feedback: Tetracylines are broad spectrum so superinfection risk is relatively high. They bind divalent cations, such as iron or calcium so should not be taken with milk or absorption could be decreased by up to 50%! If used during pregnancy or under 9yo, it binds to calcium in bones and discolors teeth permananetly. it does make skin more sensitive to burning.
Examples of antibiotics in the penicillin class include:
A. cefazolin, cephalexin, ceftriaxone
B. azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin
C. amoxicillin, nafcillin, pipercillin
D. amikacin, gentamicin, tobramycin
Resistance to antibiotics can be minimized by:
A. early treatment of all viral infections.
B. limiting use of prophylactic antibiotics.
C. teaching patients to stop taking the antibiotic when the symptoms of infection resolve.
D. using broad spectrum antibiotics whenever possible
Match the drug to its main mechanism of action.
Penicillin a. inhibit nucleic acid syntheisis
Sulfonamides b. inhibit cell wall synthesis
Aminoglycosides c. antimetabolite, competition for folate
Flouroquinolones d. inhibit protein synthesis
A "superinfection" refers to:
A. An infection with a resistant organism.
B. The presence of several different organisms in an infected site.
C. Overgrowth of undesired microbes when normal flora has been destroyed by antibiotic therapy.
D. Infection with a fungus.
Post 3 Inflam
When comparing antihistamines such as the classic diphenhydramine (BENADRYL) to the more recently marketed fexofenadine (ALLEGRA), you would say that fexofenadine is:
A. Less expensive
B. Available by more routes of administration (oral, intravenous, topical)
C. More likely to cause sedation
D. Less likely to cause dry mouth
Atheletes have been known to abuse steroids for body building purposes. The mechanism behind this is:
A. Glucocorticoids cause protein synthesis in exercising muscles.
B. Glucocorticoids inhibit insulin from carrying glucose into muscle cells.
C. Glucocorticoids stimulate the uptake of proteins from the GI tract.
D. Glucocorticoids are not the type of steroids abused by athletes.
When ASPIRIN is used to reduce fever in an adult, the usual dose is:
A. 80-325 mg each day
B. 80 mg as needed
C. 650 mg as neeeded
D. 4 grams as neeeded
In rheumatoid arthritis, valdecoxib (BEXTRA) may be preferred over a traditional NSAID such as naproxen (ALEVE), because:
A. COX-2 inhibitors are associated with a high rate of GI bleeding
B. Once-a-day dosing is possible.
C. It is less expensive.
D. It works in both women and men.
A transplant patient receiving immunosupression with drugs such as corticosteroids with tacrolimus, mycophenolate or cyclosporine is at greatest risk for which adverse effect?
A. Sedation
B. Infection
C. Blood clots
D. Hypotension
General Feedback: Suppressing the immune system decreases the chance of rejecting the transplanted organ but also suppresses the ability to fight off infection.
Loratadine (CLARITIN) is an antihistamine useful in treating:
A. arthritis
B. ulcers
C. runny nose associated with allergies
D. headache associated with migraines
In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, nasal sprays of fluticasone are preferred over oral pills of prednisone because:
A. the cost is significantly lower
B. absorption is better
C. risk of addiction is lower
D. there are fewer side effects
General Feedback: Steroids have significant side effects and should be given locally, not systemically when possible.
Naproxen (ALEVE) works by:
A. Stimulating the release of leukotrines from white blood cells.
B. Blocking the enzyme lipo-oxygenase.
C. Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
D. All of the above
If a patient had a tumor that was secreting adrenocorticotropin (ACTH), what would happen if dexamethasone was given for several days?
A. The tumor would increase secretion of ACTH.
B. Blood levels of the body's natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would remain high.
C. Blood levels of the body's natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would drop.
D. The tumor would decrease secretion of ACTH.
General Feedback: When the body's only supply of ACTH is from the pituitary, giving a glucocorticosteroid like dexamethasone, creates a negative feedback loop so the pituitary puts out less ACTH and thus less cortisol is released from the adrenal gland. ACTH secreting tumors are not responsive to this negative feedback loop and keep secreting ACTH, thus keeping cortisol levels up.
When glucocorticoid drugs have been given systemically in high dose for several weeks or more:
A. The patient will probably have liver failure which will not resolve on discontinuation of the drug.
B. The patient will probably have liver failure which will resolve on discontinuation of the drug.
C. The patient will have a life-time dependency on the drugs.
D. The dose should be tapered off slowly when the patient no longer needs the steroid.
Newer generation antihistamines, such as fexofenadine (ALLEGRA), are less likely to enter __________ tissue than the older drugs such as the classic diphenhydramine (BENADRYL).
A. liver
B. renal
C. brain
D. fat
When systemic steroids are given for replacement (as in Addison's disease), doses are generally _____________ than when they are given for inflammation (such as in an acute asthma attack).
A. larger and given for a longer period of time
B. larger and given for a shorter period of time
C. smaller and given for a longer period of time
D. smaller and given for a shorter period of time
Mr. Kim has had a kidney transplant and has been taking cyclosporin. His serum creatinine is going up. What is the best explanation of this?
A. He is having an allergic reaction to the drug.
B. He is having a very common adverse reaction to the drug.
C. He is rejecting his transplanted kidney.
D. Adverse drug reaction and transplant rejection must both be considered.
A patient is to recieve ketorolac (TORADOL) for 3 days after surgery. This drug will act to:
A. Stimulate the release of leukotrines from white blood cells.
B. Block the enzyme lipo-oxygenase.
C. Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
D. All of the above
Glucocorticoid preparations are available by which routes?
A. Oral and intraveneous only
B. Topical and oral only
C. direct injection into a joint or lesion and inhaled only
D. all of the above routes are available
Additional Questions courtesy of Vanessa Kelly and Lily Sok, Thanks!!! (added 12/2)
Indications for H1 blockers include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Asthma
B. Nasal allergies
C. Itching
D. Motion sickness
Let's assume a patient's only supply of adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) is from the pituitary. In other words, they do not have and ACTH-secreting tumor. What would happen if dexamethasone was given for several days?
A. Blood levels of the body's natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would remain high.
B. The pituitary would be stimulated to secrete more ACTH.
C. The adrenal gland would be stimulated to secrete ACTH.
D. Blood levels of the body's natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would drop.
A patient with frequent bruising and fat deposits on the cheeks and shoulders, is being evaluated for Cushing's Syndrome. Dexamethasone is given for several days. What would be tested next?
1. Urine and or cortisol levels.
2. Fasting blood sugar.
3. Hemoglobin A1C
4. Platelets and cholesterol.
A. Less expensive
B. Available by more routes of administration (oral, intravenous, topical)
C. More likely to cause sedation
D. Less likely to cause dry mouth
Atheletes have been known to abuse steroids for body building purposes. The mechanism behind this is:
A. Glucocorticoids cause protein synthesis in exercising muscles.
B. Glucocorticoids inhibit insulin from carrying glucose into muscle cells.
C. Glucocorticoids stimulate the uptake of proteins from the GI tract.
D. Glucocorticoids are not the type of steroids abused by athletes.
When ASPIRIN is used to reduce fever in an adult, the usual dose is:
A. 80-325 mg each day
B. 80 mg as needed
C. 650 mg as neeeded
D. 4 grams as neeeded
In rheumatoid arthritis, valdecoxib (BEXTRA) may be preferred over a traditional NSAID such as naproxen (ALEVE), because:
A. COX-2 inhibitors are associated with a high rate of GI bleeding
B. Once-a-day dosing is possible.
C. It is less expensive.
D. It works in both women and men.
A transplant patient receiving immunosupression with drugs such as corticosteroids with tacrolimus, mycophenolate or cyclosporine is at greatest risk for which adverse effect?
A. Sedation
B. Infection
C. Blood clots
D. Hypotension
General Feedback: Suppressing the immune system decreases the chance of rejecting the transplanted organ but also suppresses the ability to fight off infection.
Loratadine (CLARITIN) is an antihistamine useful in treating:
A. arthritis
B. ulcers
C. runny nose associated with allergies
D. headache associated with migraines
In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, nasal sprays of fluticasone are preferred over oral pills of prednisone because:
A. the cost is significantly lower
B. absorption is better
C. risk of addiction is lower
D. there are fewer side effects
General Feedback: Steroids have significant side effects and should be given locally, not systemically when possible.
Naproxen (ALEVE) works by:
A. Stimulating the release of leukotrines from white blood cells.
B. Blocking the enzyme lipo-oxygenase.
C. Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
D. All of the above
If a patient had a tumor that was secreting adrenocorticotropin (ACTH), what would happen if dexamethasone was given for several days?
A. The tumor would increase secretion of ACTH.
B. Blood levels of the body's natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would remain high.
C. Blood levels of the body's natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would drop.
D. The tumor would decrease secretion of ACTH.
General Feedback: When the body's only supply of ACTH is from the pituitary, giving a glucocorticosteroid like dexamethasone, creates a negative feedback loop so the pituitary puts out less ACTH and thus less cortisol is released from the adrenal gland. ACTH secreting tumors are not responsive to this negative feedback loop and keep secreting ACTH, thus keeping cortisol levels up.
When glucocorticoid drugs have been given systemically in high dose for several weeks or more:
A. The patient will probably have liver failure which will not resolve on discontinuation of the drug.
B. The patient will probably have liver failure which will resolve on discontinuation of the drug.
C. The patient will have a life-time dependency on the drugs.
D. The dose should be tapered off slowly when the patient no longer needs the steroid.
Newer generation antihistamines, such as fexofenadine (ALLEGRA), are less likely to enter __________ tissue than the older drugs such as the classic diphenhydramine (BENADRYL).
A. liver
B. renal
C. brain
D. fat
When systemic steroids are given for replacement (as in Addison's disease), doses are generally _____________ than when they are given for inflammation (such as in an acute asthma attack).
A. larger and given for a longer period of time
B. larger and given for a shorter period of time
C. smaller and given for a longer period of time
D. smaller and given for a shorter period of time
Mr. Kim has had a kidney transplant and has been taking cyclosporin. His serum creatinine is going up. What is the best explanation of this?
A. He is having an allergic reaction to the drug.
B. He is having a very common adverse reaction to the drug.
C. He is rejecting his transplanted kidney.
D. Adverse drug reaction and transplant rejection must both be considered.
A patient is to recieve ketorolac (TORADOL) for 3 days after surgery. This drug will act to:
A. Stimulate the release of leukotrines from white blood cells.
B. Block the enzyme lipo-oxygenase.
C. Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
D. All of the above
Glucocorticoid preparations are available by which routes?
A. Oral and intraveneous only
B. Topical and oral only
C. direct injection into a joint or lesion and inhaled only
D. all of the above routes are available
Additional Questions courtesy of Vanessa Kelly and Lily Sok, Thanks!!! (added 12/2)
Indications for H1 blockers include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Asthma
B. Nasal allergies
C. Itching
D. Motion sickness
Let's assume a patient's only supply of adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) is from the pituitary. In other words, they do not have and ACTH-secreting tumor. What would happen if dexamethasone was given for several days?
A. Blood levels of the body's natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would remain high.
B. The pituitary would be stimulated to secrete more ACTH.
C. The adrenal gland would be stimulated to secrete ACTH.
D. Blood levels of the body's natural glucocorticoid, (cortisol) would drop.
A patient with frequent bruising and fat deposits on the cheeks and shoulders, is being evaluated for Cushing's Syndrome. Dexamethasone is given for several days. What would be tested next?
1. Urine and or cortisol levels.
2. Fasting blood sugar.
3. Hemoglobin A1C
4. Platelets and cholesterol.
Pre 3 Inflam
Actions of glucocorticoids include:
A. supresses inflammation
B. fight off infection
C. inhibit glucose production
D. stimulate adrenal secretions
In addition to decreasing inflammation, NSAIDS are used to:
A. Reduce pain
B. Proote blood clotting
C. Prevent allergies
D. Raise body temperature
Azathioprine (Imuran) is used for:
A. Boosting the immune response to vaccines.
B. Preventing rejection of transplanted organs.
C. Reducing inflammation associated with migraine headaches.
D. Preventing viral infections in patients who are immune suppressed.
A transplant patient receiving immunosupression with drugs such as corticosteroids with tacrolimus, mycophenolate or cyclosporine is at greatest risk for which adverse effect?
A. Sedation
B. Infection
C. Blood clots
D. Hypotension
General Feedback: Suppressing the immune system decreases the chance of rejecting the transplanted organ but also suppresses the ability to fight off infection.
Drugs that interact with H1 receptors may be useful in:
1. Infection
2. Auto-immune disease
3. Hay fever
4. Gastric ulcer prevention
The mechanism of action of NSAIDS is to:
A. Bind reversibly to thromboxane, preventing release of acetylcholine from mast cells.
B. Inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase, preventing synthesis of prostaglandin and thromboxane.
C. Block glucocorticoid channels, stimulating the release of interleukin from white blood cells.
D. Stimulate release of iron stores from lymph cells, causing migration of white blood cells to inflammed tissue.
Azathioprine (Imuran) is used for:
A. Preventing viral infections in patients who are immune suppressed.
B. Preventing inflammation associated with sports injuries.
C. Supressing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis..
D. Stimulating inflammation to treat migraine headaches.
A relatively common adverse reaction to diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is:
A. Sedation
B. Infection
C. Gastric bleeding
D. Rash
General Feedback: Sedation and anticholinergic effects (constipation, dry mouth, blurred vision) are relatively common with diphenhydramine. Rash is less common.
Additional Questions courtesy of Vanessa Kelly and Lily Sok, Thanks!!! (added 12/2)
Adverse effects of glucocorticoids include:
A. Decreased blood sugar
B. Loss of fat tissue in the face and upper back
C. Mood and behavior changes
D. Decreased feeling in the fingers and toes.
Drugs that interact with H1 receptors attach to which tissue?
1. Blood vessels and airways
2. Stomach
3. White blood cells
4. Nerve cells
Azathioprine (Imuran) is used for:
A. Stimulating inflammation to treat migraine headaches.
B. Supressing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Preventing inflammation associated with sports injuries.
D. Preventing viral infections in patients who are immune suppressed.
A. supresses inflammation
B. fight off infection
C. inhibit glucose production
D. stimulate adrenal secretions
In addition to decreasing inflammation, NSAIDS are used to:
A. Reduce pain
B. Proote blood clotting
C. Prevent allergies
D. Raise body temperature
Azathioprine (Imuran) is used for:
A. Boosting the immune response to vaccines.
B. Preventing rejection of transplanted organs.
C. Reducing inflammation associated with migraine headaches.
D. Preventing viral infections in patients who are immune suppressed.
A transplant patient receiving immunosupression with drugs such as corticosteroids with tacrolimus, mycophenolate or cyclosporine is at greatest risk for which adverse effect?
A. Sedation
B. Infection
C. Blood clots
D. Hypotension
General Feedback: Suppressing the immune system decreases the chance of rejecting the transplanted organ but also suppresses the ability to fight off infection.
Drugs that interact with H1 receptors may be useful in:
1. Infection
2. Auto-immune disease
3. Hay fever
4. Gastric ulcer prevention
The mechanism of action of NSAIDS is to:
A. Bind reversibly to thromboxane, preventing release of acetylcholine from mast cells.
B. Inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase, preventing synthesis of prostaglandin and thromboxane.
C. Block glucocorticoid channels, stimulating the release of interleukin from white blood cells.
D. Stimulate release of iron stores from lymph cells, causing migration of white blood cells to inflammed tissue.
Azathioprine (Imuran) is used for:
A. Preventing viral infections in patients who are immune suppressed.
B. Preventing inflammation associated with sports injuries.
C. Supressing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis..
D. Stimulating inflammation to treat migraine headaches.
A relatively common adverse reaction to diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is:
A. Sedation
B. Infection
C. Gastric bleeding
D. Rash
General Feedback: Sedation and anticholinergic effects (constipation, dry mouth, blurred vision) are relatively common with diphenhydramine. Rash is less common.
Additional Questions courtesy of Vanessa Kelly and Lily Sok, Thanks!!! (added 12/2)
Adverse effects of glucocorticoids include:
A. Decreased blood sugar
B. Loss of fat tissue in the face and upper back
C. Mood and behavior changes
D. Decreased feeling in the fingers and toes.
Drugs that interact with H1 receptors attach to which tissue?
1. Blood vessels and airways
2. Stomach
3. White blood cells
4. Nerve cells
Azathioprine (Imuran) is used for:
A. Stimulating inflammation to treat migraine headaches.
B. Supressing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Preventing inflammation associated with sports injuries.
D. Preventing viral infections in patients who are immune suppressed.
Post 2 Gen 2
The incidence and severity of adverse reactions caused by a drug determines which property of that drug?
A. efficacy
B. potency
C. purity
D. safety/toxicity
A drug company is conducting a "Phase III" study on a new drug. Which activity will be occuring?
A. The drug will be tested on a third species of animal.
B. The drug will be tested on a second species of animal.
C. The drug will be tested on patients who might benefit from it.
D. The drug will be tested on a small group of human volunteers.
Which of the following affects drug absorption from the site of administration?
A. binding to plasma proteins.
B. liver function
C. solubility.
D. receptor specificity
Drug K can be administered by mouth or parenterally (by injection in vein or tissue). However, the drug dose needed to produce therapeutic blood levels is three times higher when the drug is administered by mouth. Which of the following provides the best explanation for this phenomenon?
A. first-pass liver metabolism of oral dose
B. hepatic enzyme induction resulting from oral route
C. differences in drug solubility between the oral and parenteral routes
D. differences in plasma protein binding between the oral and parenteral routes
Not all drugs in use today have been rated for safety in pregnancy. Of those that have been rated, which classification represents the greatest risk?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Category A
D. Category X
Drug X is an acidic drug that is largely un-ionized in acidic environments. Alkalinizing the urine would __________urinary elimination of this drug.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. have no effect on
Recently the FDA has reccommended the use of Tall man lettering, such as DOPamine rather than dopamine. The purpose of this is to
1. differentiate between trade name and generic name.
2. reduce drug name confusion that could cause errors.
3. designate that this is an OTC medication.
A drug that occupies a receptor but does not activate the receptor is an:
A. adjuvant.
B. affinitant.
C. agonist.
D. antagonist.
Select the true statement about drug allergies:
A. The bigger the first dose of the drug, the more likely you will see an allergic reaction.
B. Symptoms range from mild rash and swelling to airway constriction and shock.
C. It is the same as an idiosyncratic reaction.
D. All of the above.
The 100,000 lives campaign suggested that nationwide implementation of 6 interventions could save 100,000 lives each year. Which is one of these interventions?
A. Patients should be advised to not bring a list of their home medicine when they are admitted to a hospital.
B. When a patient is on a mechanical ventilator, medicine to prevent peptic ulcers should be avoided.
C. We should give a beta-blocker drug early on and at discharge for patients with heart attacks.
D. Aspirin and other platelet inhibitors should never be given in chest pain until you are sure the patient did not have a heart attack.
General Feedback: The 100,000 lives campaign called for research based interventions (among other things) to deploy rapid response teams, give aspirin right away for heart attack, clean skin with chlorhexidine before starting central intravenous lines, keep glucose normal after surgery, reconciliate medications, and prevent pneumonia for patients on ventilators.
A teratogen is a drug that is likely to
1. cause birth defects
2. have a high abuse potential.
3. require a prescription.
4. be illegal.
A drug company is conducting a "Phase I Clinical Trial" study on a new drug. Which activity will be occuring?
A. The drug will be chemically tested in test tubes.
B. The drug will be tested in non-human animals.
C. The drug will be tested in a small number of healthy volunteers.
D. The drug will be tested in a small number of patients who might benefit from the drug.
For the breastfed infant, factors which enhance drug excretion into breast milk include:
A. Drug has a high molecular weight
B. Drug is not fat soluble
C. Drug is in the ionized form
D. Maternal drug level is high
Drugs may not be sold in the United States until they have been approved by:
A. The Food and Drug Administration
B. The National Institute of Drugs
C. The American Association of Pharmacists
D. The Center for Drug Control
What activity takes place during "medication reconciliation"?
A. Before approving a drug name, comparisons are made with other drug names to be sure nothing is similar.
B. Double checks are made on labeling of the drug before it is released to patients or those who will administer them.
C. Before administering the drug, double checks are made that it is the right drug, dose, time, route, and patient.
D. A list of the patient home medications is compared to what has been ordered in the hospital.
Additional questions courtesy of Vanessa Kelly, Thanks!!(added on 10/3)
One reason why most drugs have side effects is because
A. drugs bind to more than one receptor.
B. drugs cannot bind to the desired receptor.
C. drugs are pure.
D. the drug is not given in high enough doses.
Which property of drugs is determined by the degree that a drug can be absorbed and transported by the body to its active site?
A. bioavailability
B. efficacy
C. purity
D. safety/toxicity
S. Henry has been taking digoxin for many years. Knowing that digoxin is highly plasma protein bound, what do you predict will occur if you give him a second drug that also binds plasma proteins?
A. the potential for digoxin toxicity will increase
B. the potential for digoxin toxicity will decrease
C. the potential for toxicity of the second drug will decrease
D. nothing should happen
Binding to plasma proteins can affect
A. drug distribution.
B. drug metabolism.
C. drug elimination.
D. distribution, metabolism and elimination
In pregnancy:
A. Most drugs reach the fetus, some cause adverse effects.
B. Few drugs are able to cross the placenta, but the ones that do are almost always very toxic to the baby.
Which of the following would best apply to the term, drug interactions (as opposed to contraindications, precautions, and adverse reactions)?
A. Every drug has some side effects that many patients may experience when taking the drug.
B. One drug may counteract or enhance the effect of another drug the patient is taking.
C. Specific drugs should not be used under certain conditions, such as when a patient is pregnant.
D. The risk of complications is increased if the drug is given to a patient with an organ impairment, such as a kidney.
Which of the following is recommended by the FDA to reduce medication errors?
A. Use of bar codes on patient name bands.
B. Placing medications at the patient's bedside for self-administration.
C. Asking patient care technicians to administer drugs.
D. Using only trade name drugs in hospital pharmacies.
When a drug is heavily plasma protein bound, the fraction of the drug that exerts the pharmacological effect is the
A. free drug
B. protein bound drug
C. both the free and protein bound drug
D. metabolized drug fragments
Pharmacists are licensed to perform all of the following activities EXCEPT:
A. Prescribe which drug the patient needs.
B. Label and dispense the drug.
C. Teach the patient about the drug.
D. Analyze potential interactions with other drugs the patient is taking.
A. efficacy
B. potency
C. purity
D. safety/toxicity
A drug company is conducting a "Phase III" study on a new drug. Which activity will be occuring?
A. The drug will be tested on a third species of animal.
B. The drug will be tested on a second species of animal.
C. The drug will be tested on patients who might benefit from it.
D. The drug will be tested on a small group of human volunteers.
Which of the following affects drug absorption from the site of administration?
A. binding to plasma proteins.
B. liver function
C. solubility.
D. receptor specificity
Drug K can be administered by mouth or parenterally (by injection in vein or tissue). However, the drug dose needed to produce therapeutic blood levels is three times higher when the drug is administered by mouth. Which of the following provides the best explanation for this phenomenon?
A. first-pass liver metabolism of oral dose
B. hepatic enzyme induction resulting from oral route
C. differences in drug solubility between the oral and parenteral routes
D. differences in plasma protein binding between the oral and parenteral routes
Not all drugs in use today have been rated for safety in pregnancy. Of those that have been rated, which classification represents the greatest risk?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Category A
D. Category X
Drug X is an acidic drug that is largely un-ionized in acidic environments. Alkalinizing the urine would __________urinary elimination of this drug.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. have no effect on
Recently the FDA has reccommended the use of Tall man lettering, such as DOPamine rather than dopamine. The purpose of this is to
1. differentiate between trade name and generic name.
2. reduce drug name confusion that could cause errors.
3. designate that this is an OTC medication.
A drug that occupies a receptor but does not activate the receptor is an:
A. adjuvant.
B. affinitant.
C. agonist.
D. antagonist.
Select the true statement about drug allergies:
A. The bigger the first dose of the drug, the more likely you will see an allergic reaction.
B. Symptoms range from mild rash and swelling to airway constriction and shock.
C. It is the same as an idiosyncratic reaction.
D. All of the above.
The 100,000 lives campaign suggested that nationwide implementation of 6 interventions could save 100,000 lives each year. Which is one of these interventions?
A. Patients should be advised to not bring a list of their home medicine when they are admitted to a hospital.
B. When a patient is on a mechanical ventilator, medicine to prevent peptic ulcers should be avoided.
C. We should give a beta-blocker drug early on and at discharge for patients with heart attacks.
D. Aspirin and other platelet inhibitors should never be given in chest pain until you are sure the patient did not have a heart attack.
General Feedback: The 100,000 lives campaign called for research based interventions (among other things) to deploy rapid response teams, give aspirin right away for heart attack, clean skin with chlorhexidine before starting central intravenous lines, keep glucose normal after surgery, reconciliate medications, and prevent pneumonia for patients on ventilators.
A teratogen is a drug that is likely to
1. cause birth defects
2. have a high abuse potential.
3. require a prescription.
4. be illegal.
A drug company is conducting a "Phase I Clinical Trial" study on a new drug. Which activity will be occuring?
A. The drug will be chemically tested in test tubes.
B. The drug will be tested in non-human animals.
C. The drug will be tested in a small number of healthy volunteers.
D. The drug will be tested in a small number of patients who might benefit from the drug.
For the breastfed infant, factors which enhance drug excretion into breast milk include:
A. Drug has a high molecular weight
B. Drug is not fat soluble
C. Drug is in the ionized form
D. Maternal drug level is high
Drugs may not be sold in the United States until they have been approved by:
A. The Food and Drug Administration
B. The National Institute of Drugs
C. The American Association of Pharmacists
D. The Center for Drug Control
What activity takes place during "medication reconciliation"?
A. Before approving a drug name, comparisons are made with other drug names to be sure nothing is similar.
B. Double checks are made on labeling of the drug before it is released to patients or those who will administer them.
C. Before administering the drug, double checks are made that it is the right drug, dose, time, route, and patient.
D. A list of the patient home medications is compared to what has been ordered in the hospital.
Additional questions courtesy of Vanessa Kelly, Thanks!!(added on 10/3)
One reason why most drugs have side effects is because
A. drugs bind to more than one receptor.
B. drugs cannot bind to the desired receptor.
C. drugs are pure.
D. the drug is not given in high enough doses.
Which property of drugs is determined by the degree that a drug can be absorbed and transported by the body to its active site?
A. bioavailability
B. efficacy
C. purity
D. safety/toxicity
S. Henry has been taking digoxin for many years. Knowing that digoxin is highly plasma protein bound, what do you predict will occur if you give him a second drug that also binds plasma proteins?
A. the potential for digoxin toxicity will increase
B. the potential for digoxin toxicity will decrease
C. the potential for toxicity of the second drug will decrease
D. nothing should happen
Binding to plasma proteins can affect
A. drug distribution.
B. drug metabolism.
C. drug elimination.
D. distribution, metabolism and elimination
In pregnancy:
A. Most drugs reach the fetus, some cause adverse effects.
B. Few drugs are able to cross the placenta, but the ones that do are almost always very toxic to the baby.
Which of the following would best apply to the term, drug interactions (as opposed to contraindications, precautions, and adverse reactions)?
A. Every drug has some side effects that many patients may experience when taking the drug.
B. One drug may counteract or enhance the effect of another drug the patient is taking.
C. Specific drugs should not be used under certain conditions, such as when a patient is pregnant.
D. The risk of complications is increased if the drug is given to a patient with an organ impairment, such as a kidney.
Which of the following is recommended by the FDA to reduce medication errors?
A. Use of bar codes on patient name bands.
B. Placing medications at the patient's bedside for self-administration.
C. Asking patient care technicians to administer drugs.
D. Using only trade name drugs in hospital pharmacies.
When a drug is heavily plasma protein bound, the fraction of the drug that exerts the pharmacological effect is the
A. free drug
B. protein bound drug
C. both the free and protein bound drug
D. metabolized drug fragments
Pharmacists are licensed to perform all of the following activities EXCEPT:
A. Prescribe which drug the patient needs.
B. Label and dispense the drug.
C. Teach the patient about the drug.
D. Analyze potential interactions with other drugs the patient is taking.
Pre 2 Gen 2
According to the Drug Enforcement Agency, which drug class has the highest potential for abuse?
1. Schedule I
2. Schedule II
3. Schedule III
4. Schedule IV
After a drug is administered, it must get to the site where it exerts its action. This phase of pharmacokinetics is called
1. absorption
2. distribution
3. metabolism
4. excretion
After a drug is administered, it goes to the site of action. Soon after this, the blood level of the drug begins to decline. This decline in blood levels best represents
1. absorption
2. distribution
3. metabolism
4. allergy
If a rapid onset of action is important, which route of administration would you choose?
1. transcutaneous
2. inhaled
3. intravenous
4. oral
Which pregnancy category indicates that controlled studies in humans have not shown risk to the mother or fetus?
A. Category A
B. Category C
C. Category D
D. Category X
In the US, controlled substances are
A. drugs whose use, distribution, and prescribing is determed by the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 and it ammendaments.
B. not intended for human use.
C. usually sold over the counter in low doses.
D. restricted because of risk in pregnancy.
When two or more drugs are given together and the result is smaller than you would have seen if the drugs had been given alone, you have a drug interaction known as:
A. potentiation
B. synergy
C. summation
D. antagonism
Which of the following is an adverse effect of subcutaneous administration of drugs?
1. little of the drug is absorbed by this route.
2. drug metabolism is slower.
3. drug distribution is usually a problem.
4. pain, swelling or infection could occur.
Additional Question courtesy of Vanessa Kelly, THanks!!! (added 10/3)
In the US, controlled substances are
A. not intended for human use.
B. usually sold over the counter in low doses.
C. restricted because of risk in pregnancy.
D. drugs whose use, distribution, and prescribing is determed by the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 and it ammendaments.
An important disadvantage of administering a drug intravenously is that
1. the potential for infection is higher than for oral administration.
2. drug metabolism is slower.
3. drug abosrption is less complete.
4. drug absorption is erratic.
Most drug metabolism occurs in the:
A. liver
B. kidney
C. intestines
D. gall bladder
An important disadvantage of administering a drug intravenously is that
1. the potential for infection is higher than for oral administration.
2. drug metabolism is slower.
3. drug abosrption is less complete.
4. drug absorption is erratic.
Which pregnancy category indicates that either risks found in animal studies were not validated in human studies, or there were no risks found in animal studies?
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category X
Drugs may not be sold in the United States until they have been approved by:
A. The Food and Drug Administration
B. The National Institute of Drugs
C. The American Association of Pharmacists
D. The Center for Drug Control
An important advantage of administering a drug intravenously is that
1. you can control the duration of action.
2. there are fewer adverse effects.
3. the onset of action is faster than other routes.
4. first pass metabolism is enhanced.
Which pregnancy category indicates that there is evidence of human fetal risk but that use of the drug might still be acceptable if the woman is very ill and there are not safer, effective drug choices.
1. Category A
2. Category C
3. Category D
4. Category X
1. Schedule I
2. Schedule II
3. Schedule III
4. Schedule IV
After a drug is administered, it must get to the site where it exerts its action. This phase of pharmacokinetics is called
1. absorption
2. distribution
3. metabolism
4. excretion
After a drug is administered, it goes to the site of action. Soon after this, the blood level of the drug begins to decline. This decline in blood levels best represents
1. absorption
2. distribution
3. metabolism
4. allergy
If a rapid onset of action is important, which route of administration would you choose?
1. transcutaneous
2. inhaled
3. intravenous
4. oral
Which pregnancy category indicates that controlled studies in humans have not shown risk to the mother or fetus?
A. Category A
B. Category C
C. Category D
D. Category X
In the US, controlled substances are
A. drugs whose use, distribution, and prescribing is determed by the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 and it ammendaments.
B. not intended for human use.
C. usually sold over the counter in low doses.
D. restricted because of risk in pregnancy.
When two or more drugs are given together and the result is smaller than you would have seen if the drugs had been given alone, you have a drug interaction known as:
A. potentiation
B. synergy
C. summation
D. antagonism
Which of the following is an adverse effect of subcutaneous administration of drugs?
1. little of the drug is absorbed by this route.
2. drug metabolism is slower.
3. drug distribution is usually a problem.
4. pain, swelling or infection could occur.
Additional Question courtesy of Vanessa Kelly, THanks!!! (added 10/3)
In the US, controlled substances are
A. not intended for human use.
B. usually sold over the counter in low doses.
C. restricted because of risk in pregnancy.
D. drugs whose use, distribution, and prescribing is determed by the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 and it ammendaments.
An important disadvantage of administering a drug intravenously is that
1. the potential for infection is higher than for oral administration.
2. drug metabolism is slower.
3. drug abosrption is less complete.
4. drug absorption is erratic.
Most drug metabolism occurs in the:
A. liver
B. kidney
C. intestines
D. gall bladder
An important disadvantage of administering a drug intravenously is that
1. the potential for infection is higher than for oral administration.
2. drug metabolism is slower.
3. drug abosrption is less complete.
4. drug absorption is erratic.
Which pregnancy category indicates that either risks found in animal studies were not validated in human studies, or there were no risks found in animal studies?
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category X
Drugs may not be sold in the United States until they have been approved by:
A. The Food and Drug Administration
B. The National Institute of Drugs
C. The American Association of Pharmacists
D. The Center for Drug Control
An important advantage of administering a drug intravenously is that
1. you can control the duration of action.
2. there are fewer adverse effects.
3. the onset of action is faster than other routes.
4. first pass metabolism is enhanced.
Which pregnancy category indicates that there is evidence of human fetal risk but that use of the drug might still be acceptable if the woman is very ill and there are not safer, effective drug choices.
1. Category A
2. Category C
3. Category D
4. Category X
Post 1 Gen 1
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| Before marketing a new drug, the drug company asks the FDA to approve its choice of: | ||||||||||||
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| Adverse reactions to drugs occur because: | ||||||||||||
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| Drug A can produce the same effects as Drug B at a lower dose of drug A. Drug A is: | ||||||||||||
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| Most drug work by: | ||||||||||||
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| General Feedback: | This accounts for the selectivity we see in drugs, acting on some cells and not on others. The binding may activate or inhibit an enzyme, alter cell permeability, or alter the production of a cellular protein. | |||||||||||
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| Recombinant technology is allowing us to: | ||||||||||||
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| General Feedback: | Hepatitis vaccine is a good example. The DNA that codes for the portion of the hepatitis virus to which we make an immune reponse is inserted in a yeast cell. When the yeast makes protein from it's DNA it makes many copies of the hepatitis protein, which we can inject as a vaccine. | |||||||||||
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| Nicotine induces P-450 enzymes in the liver. An AIDS patient taking a protease inhibitor drug which is metabolized by these enzymes would experience which of the following if they smoked? | |||||||||||
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| You have a patient with Parkinson's disease, and you want to get more dopamine into the brain. Dopamine is a polar molecule. How can you accomplish this best? | |||||||||||
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| General Feedback: | Charged (polar or water soluble) molecules cannot cross the blood brain barrier. The Parkinson's patient takes levadopa (a lipid soluble precurser to dopamine). After it diffuses across the blood brain barrier, it coverts to dopamine. (You could get into trouble by converting all that dopamine out in the periphery as the blood pressure would sky rocket. Add a peripheral conversion inhibitor (carbidopa) to prevent this. Sinemet is the typical drug taken. It is a combination of levadopa and carbidopa. | ||||||||||
| The time between when a drug is administered and when there are observable effects is called the | |||||||||||
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A drug that occupies and "turns on" a receptor is an:
| | Student Response |
| A. | adjuvant. |
| B. | affinitant. |
| C. | antagonist. |
| D. | agonist. |
| Drug A can produce the same effects as Drug B at a lower dose of drug A. Drug A is: | ||||||||||
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| Once a drug's peak effect has been reached, further doses of the drug will increase efficacy. | |||||||||||||
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| Which of the following recent advances is most likely to influence future drug development and use? | |||||||||||||
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| General Feedback: | We have been able to isolate compounds out of plants for hundreds of years. Consider getting morphine from opium and digitalis form foxglove. The first antibiotics were discovered in the early 20th century and most/all microbes known to man have already been sceeened for potential new antibiotics. Chronopharmacolgy is a relatively new field but we do not have the ability to alter biological rhythms in a systematic way that could be exploited for drug therapy. In 2000 with the completion of the human genome project our knowledge of genetics is enabling us to customize drug therapy. This is anticipated to really change the way drugs are developed and used. | ||||||||||||
| You have a patient with meningitis, an inflammation of the brain covering. How can you get antibiotics to cross the blood brain barrier? | |||||||||||
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| General Feedback: | Inflammation opens the tight juction between endothelial cells in the brain allowing the antibiotics to enter. | ||||||||||
Thanks Lily for the extra questions!!
"Potency" refers to:
A. The severity of side effects.
B. The dose required to achieve therapeutic effect.
C. How quickly the drug will work.
D. Whether the drug will work.
6.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to measure efficacy of a drug?
A. Analyzing chemically the ingredients of the drug for impurities.
B. Asking clients if their symptoms were relieved after taking the drug.
C. Observing clients for harmful side effects while being treated with the drug.
D. Testing blood samples for concentration of the drug after the drug has been given.
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